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2 years ago

Can someone explain how to get the answer, please? Thanks!

Mathematics

1 answer:

Irina18 [472]2 years ago

4 0

The mean is 10,

The median is 10,

And there is no mode.

The mean of a set of numbers is the sum divided by the number of terms,

7+15+12+6+10=50

There are 5 numbers in the set,

50/5=10.
10 is the mean.

Arrange the data in an ascending order and the median is the middle value. If the number of values is an even number, the median will be the average of the two middle numbers,

6, 7, 10, 12, 15,

10 is in the middle so it is the median.

The mode is the element that occurs most in the data set. In this case, all elements occur only once, so there is no mode.

Just so you don’t confuse the data with the group sets,

The actual data set is 7, 15, 12, 6, and 10

This data paired with score column or group set means that,

10 people got a score of 1-10
6 people got a score of 11-20
12 people got a score of 21-30
15 people got a score of 31-40
And 7 people got a score of 41-50 :)

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Step-by-step explanation:

As the statement is ‘‘if and only if’’ we need to prove two implications

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Now, define the sets $X_y = \{x\in X: y=f(x)\}$ . Notice that the set $X_y$ is the pre-image of the element $y$ . Also, from the fact that $f$ is a function we deduce that $X_{y_1}\cap X_{y_2}=\emptyset$ , and because $f$ the sets $X_y$ are no empty.

From each set $X_y$ choose only one element $x_y$ , and notice that $f(x_y)=y$ .

So, we can define the function $h:Y\rightarrow X$ as $h(y)=x_y$ . It is no difficult to conclude that $f\circ h(y) = f(x_y)=y$ . With this we have that $f\circ h=1_Y$ , and the prove is complete.

Now, let us prove the second implication.

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