Both the percentage method and <span>the wage-bracket method are used to distinguish unmarried persons from married persons. These methods are useful in the calculation of wages and percentages based on the number of dependents which changes when your status is changed from single to married.</span>
CVP analysis is more difficult because its requires costs to be broken down between variable and fixed which is not done in absorption costing.
<h3>What is a
CVP analysis?</h3>
This is an analysis that find out how changes in the firm's variable and fixed costs affect the firm's profit.
Hence, the analysis is difficult when using absorption costing than when using variable costing because its requires costs to be broken down between variable and fixed which is not done in absorption costing.
Read more about CVP analysis
<em>brainly.com/question/26654564</em>
Answer:
d. retail positioning matrix
Explanation:
In the example, it is noted that Boston Market has added value to its original restaurant format (with pickup, delivery...) on the one hand. On the other hand, they broadened the product line with the grocery foods. The two factors imply the axes of the <em>retail positioning matrix.</em>
The <em>retail life cycle</em> is an often confused topic that is similar to the <em>product life cycle</em> (which is related to products and services exclusively) conceptually. It consists of the following phases: innovation, growth, maturity and decline. Although this example can be correlated to the <em>innovation </em>phase of the retail life cycle, we cannot pinpoint the Boston Market's place on the retail life cycle curve, as we do not have info about its competitors, market share and other external info. Therefore, we cannot detect whether the company is in its up or down phase.
The <em>wheel of retailing</em> is an irrelevant concept, which refers to the tendency that most retailers enter a market in an extremely competitive manner (low cost, for example) and then becomes more exclusive (high cost, better reputation...).
Answer:
$3,753.59
Explanation:
Value of debt at end of 5 years = $21,000 * (1 + 6%)^5
Value of debt at end of 5 years = $21,000 * 1.3382255776
Value of debt at end of 5 years = $28102.7371296
Value of debt at end of 5 years = $28,102.74
Let x be the annual payments:
x*[1 - (1 + 9%)^-13] / 9% = $28,102.74
x * [1-0.32617864688] / 0.09 = $28,102.74
x * 7.486904 = $28,102.74
x = $28,102.74 / 7.486904
x = 3753.58626
x = $3,753.59
Answer: B. In the short run, the typical firm increases its output and makes an above normal profit.
Explanation:
I have attached a graph to explain.
Originally the Perfectly Competitive Market is in a long run Equilibrium.
This means that at 5000 units the $20 selling price was as a result of Marginal Revenue being equal to Marginal Cost.
Now a sudden change in Demand has taken the price up which then forces the Marginal Revenue Curve upwards.
This will culminate with the Marginal Revenue Curve now intersecting the Marginal Cost curve at a higher point being point F so that profit can be maximised.
This higher level will thus lead to a higher output than 5000 units at point Q as the firm will increase output.
Notice that at that point the Marginal Revenue is higher than Average Total Cost meaning that an Above normal profit is being made.
Do react or comment if you need any clarification.
