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Ann [662]
2 years ago
8

Do we, as a society, rely on technology too much?

Mathematics
2 answers:
STatiana [176]2 years ago
8 0

no. the word technology spans every invention ever created. we don't.

masha68 [24]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Yes, We as a society rely too much on technology because it is the new thing that everyone wants or needs. Technology can buy your groceries and food with a single click.

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in
Find the median of these numbers:4,2,7,4,3 *
sattari [20]

Answer:

The Median of those numbers is 4

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The equation x+53=15 can be solved by performing two operations on both sides.
Wewaii [24]
Hey!


You're right! This equation can definitely be solved by performing two operations on both sides. Let me show you how it's done.

First, let's write out our equation.

<span><em>Original Equation :</em>
</span>x + 53 = 15

Now that that's done, we'll be performing two operations on both sides. The operation we'll want to do is subtracting both sides of the equation by 53. We do this to get x on its own.

<em>Original Equation :</em>
x + 53 = 15

<em>New Equation {Added Subtract 53 to Both Sides} :</em>
x + 53 - 53 = 15 - 53

Now we have to solve the equation. Let's do the left side first.

<em>Left Side of the Equation :</em>
x + 53 - 53 

<em>Left Side of the Equation {Solved} :</em>
x

Now, we'll solve the right side of the equation.

<em>Right Side of the Equation :</em>
15 - 53

<em>Right Side of the Equation {Solved} :</em>
-38

Now we can put both solutions to both sides of the equation together.

<em>New Equation :</em>
x = -38

Since this cannot be simplified any farther, this is our final answer. And that's it!

<em>So, now we know that in the equation x + 53 = 15,</em>  x = -38

Hope this helps!


- Lindsey Frazier ♥
3 0
3 years ago
A 20.3 kg person climbs up a uniform ladder with negligible mass. The upper end of the ladder rests on a frictionless wall. The
VMariaS [17]

Answer:

Q = arctan(7.1739) = 82.06

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

- The mass of the person m = 20.3 kg

- The distance traveled up the ladder s = 1.1 m

- The gravitational constant g = 9.8 m/s^2

- The coefficient of static friction u_s = 0.23

- Total length of the ladder

Find:

The minimum angle θ, that would allow the person to climb without ladder slipping

Solution:

- Taking moments about point of ladder and wall contact A to be zero:

                   -F_n,b*cos(Q)*4 - F_f*sin(Q)*4+ m*g*cos(Q)*2.6 = 0

- Taking Sum of vertical forces to be zero:

                    F_n,b - m*g = 0

                    F_n,b = m*g

- The frictional force F_f is given by:

                   F_f = u_s*F_n,b = u_s*m*g

- Plug the values back in:

                  - m*g*cos(Q)*4 + u_s*m*g*sin(Q)*4 - m*g*cos(Q)*2.6 = 0

Simplify:

                  4*cos(Q) + 2.6*cos(Q) = u_s*4*sin(Q)

                        6.6*cos(Q) = 4*u_s*sin(Q)

                               tan(Q) = 6.6 / 4*u_s

- Plug in the values:

                               tan(Q) = 6.6 / 4*0.23

                                    Q = arctan(7.1739) = 82.06

                   

                     

4 0
3 years ago
Your dad is putting a new circular swimming pool in the backyard that has the radius of 8 ft. If he wants to put bricks AROUND t
stira [4]

Answer:

2r*3.14= c

Step-by-step explanation:

2*8=16

16* 3.14=50.24

He will need 51 feet of brick

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
HELP!! I NEED THIS QUICKLY
Elza [17]

Answer:

A and D

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that

(3/4,2/3),(1/4,1),(1,1/2) and (1/2,1)

x_1=\frac{3}{4}

y_1=\frac{2}{3}

x_2=\frac{1}{4},y_2=1

x_3=1,y_3=\frac{1}{2}

x_4=\frac{1}{2},y_4=1

k=\frac{1}{2}

Direct proportion:

\frac{x}{y}=k

Inverse proportion:xy=k

\frac{x_1}{y_1}=\frac{3}{4}\times \frac{3}{2}=\frac{9}{8}\neq \frac{1}{2}

Therefore, it is not in direct proportion.

\frac{1}{4\times 2}=\frac{1}{8}\neq\frac{1}{2}

\frac{1}{\frac{1}{2}}=2\neq \frac{1}{2}

x_1y_1=\frac{3}{4}\times \frac{2}{3}=\frac{1}{2}

x_2y_2=\frac{1}{4}\times 2=\frac{1}{2}

x_3y_3=1\times \frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{2}

x_4y_4=\frac{1}{2}\times 1=\frac{1}{2}

Therefore, xy=k=\frac{1}{2}

Hence, the given points form an inverse variation .

xy=\frac{1}{2}

y=\frac{1}{2x}

Option A and D is true.

6 0
3 years ago
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