Please help, i will mark as brainliest
1 answer:
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Answer:
Θ =tan⁻¹ (4KQ²/mgr²), Q = r[mgtanΘπ∈₀]
Step-by-step explanation:
initially the angle Θ=0° ,the vertical forces were equal to product of mass and gravity(m*g) and there was no horizontal or lateral force in action. But after the displacement of balls new forces are induced.
X-Axis:
Fe = TsinΘ
[KQ²/(r/2)²] = TsinΘ where r₁=r/2, r₁ = new distance
(4KQ²/r²) = TsinΘ
Y-Axis
TcosΘ = mg
As we know that tanΘ=sinΘ/cosΘ
We have, tanΘ = 4KQ²/mgr²
By adjusting this equation and putting K=1/4π∈₀ we get,
Q = r[mgtanΘπ∈₀]
Answer:
v=452.16
Step-by-step explanation:
use the cone volume formula: V=πr^2
v=3.14*6^2*12/3
v=3.14*36*4
v=452.16