Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Since area of a circle is pi.r^2
We know that diameter is 20
Radius is half of diameter
So it becomes
Pi.(d/2)^2
So pi.(40/4) is the area of this circle.
Or 40pi/4
the numbers are being divided by 4 so 12/4 =3
next number is 3
The formula is
V (t)=V0 (1-r)^t
V (t)?
V0 1000
R 0.05
T 5 years
V (5)=1,000×(1−0.05)^(5)=773.78
The difference of the given fraction is expressed as
Given the expression:
Take the LCM of the fraction to have:
Hence the difference of the given fraction is expressed as
Learn more on fractions here; brainly.com/question/78672
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
In the question, we're given . Therefore, the measure of these two angles must be equal.
To find the value of , set these two angles equal to each other:
Add 26 and subtract from both sides:
Divide both sides by 3:
Since was labelled as , substitute to find its measure:
You can also substitute into the label of angle D as angle A is congruent to angle D for easier calculations ().