On the break-even calculator, what values could be lowered in the soy burger model to help lower the break

Which is one of the best ways to avoid credit problems

liq [111]

paying your bills on time if not your credit will go down

8 0

3 years ago

MGM Resorts Incorporated is expected to grow at an exceptionally high rate over the next 2 years due to the success of Macau cas

Burka [1]

Answer:

The value of a share of MGM Resorts stock today will be $16.42

Explanation:

In order to calculate the value of a share of MGM Resorts stock today we would have to calculate the following steps:

Step-1, Dividend for the next 2 years

Dividend per share in Year 0 (D0) = $1.20 per share

Dividend per share in Year 1 (D1) = $1.4400 per share [$1.20 x 120%]

Dividend per share in Year 2 (D2) = $1.7280 per share [$1.4400 x 120%]

Step-2, Share Price in Year 2

Dividend Growth Rate after Year 2 (g) = 4.00% per year

Required Rate of Return (Ke) = 14.00%

Share Price in Year 2 (P2) = D2(1 + g) / (Ke – g)

= $1.7280(1 + 0.04) / (0.14 – 0.04)

= $1.7971 / 0.10

= $17.97 per share

Step-3, The Current Stock Price

As per Dividend Discount Model, Current Stock Price the aggregate of the Present Value of the future dividend payments and the present value the share price in year 2

Year Cash flow ($) PVF at 14.00% Present Value of cash flows ($)

[Cash flows x PVF]

1 1.4400 0.877193 1.26

2 1.7280 0.769468 1.33

2 17.97 0.769468 13.83

TOTAL 16.42

Hence, the value of a share of MGM Resorts stock today will be $16.42

6 0

4 years ago

The following information relates to Payleast Shoes Company. Assuming the company uses the periodic inventory system, solve for

rosijanka [135]

Answer:

A.$75,000

B.$60,000

C.$30,000

D.33%

E.$15,000

F.$3,500

G.$18,000

H.$34,500

I.31%

J.$18,000

K.$116,300

L.$90,300

M.31%

Explanation:

Payleast Shoes Company

2020

1.Net sales = $90,000

2.

Beginning Inventory = $12,000

Add Purchase (Gross) = $70,000

Less Returns/Allowance = $6,000

Less Purchase discounts = $4,000

Add Freight-in = $3,000

Cost of goods available for sale = $75,000

Less End inventory = $15,000

Cost of Sales = $60,000

3. Gross profit = $30,000

4. Gross Profit % = 33%

2021

1.Net sales = $110,000

2.

Beginning Inventory = $15,000

Add Purchase (Gross) = $82,500

Less Returns/Allowance = $5,000

Less Purchase discounts = $2,500

Add Freight-in = $3,500

Cost of goods available for sale = $93,500

Less End inventory = $18,000

Cost of Sales = $75,500

3. Gross profit = $34,500

4. Gross Profit % = 31%

2022

1.Net sales = $130,000

2.

Beginning Inventory = $18,000

Add Purchase (Gross) = $99,000

Less Returns/Allowance = $8,800

Less Purchase discounts = $1,900

Add Freight-in = $10,000

Cost of goods available for sale = $116,300

Less End inventory = $26,000

Cost of Sales = $90,300

3. Gross profit = $39,700

4. Gross Profit % = 31%

4 0

4 years ago

Dave harris has just purchased a bond with a face value of $1,000 that pays 6 percent. the purchase price of the bond was $900,

Vilka [71]

The yield of maturity for this bond is "8.4 percent".
We can calculate this in the following way;
<span>Yield to maturity = YTM = {($1,000 x .06) + [($1,000 - 900)/5]}/[($900 + $1,000)/2]
=(60 + 20) / (950)
=80/950
=0.084
=0.084 x 100
= 8.4 percent</span>

8 0

3 years ago

If the net present value of the payments at the time of the leases was 88% of the actual market price and the useful life of the

Aliun [14]

Answer:

A. True

Explanation:

Examples of situations that individually or in combination would normally lead to a lease being classified as a finance lease are:

(a) the lease transfers ownership of the underlying asset to the lessee by the end of the lease term;

(b) the lessee has the option to purchase the underlying asset at a price that is expected to be sufficiently lower than the fair value at the date the option becomes exercisable for it to be reasonably certain, at the inception date, that the option will be exercised;

(c) the lease term is for the major part of the economic life of the underlying asset even if title is not transferred;

(d) at the inception date, the present value of the lease payments amounts to at least substantially all of the fair value of the underlying asset; and

(e) the underlying asset is of such a specialised nature that only the lessee can use it without major modifications.

Since at the time of lease the net present value of the payments is 88% of the actual market price and the useful life of the asset was 70% at the end of the lease term and also the title of asset shall not be transferred to lessee at the end of lease term, therefore the lease shall not be classify as finance lease and it shall be classified as operating lease so the answer is A. True

4 0

3 years ago

On the break-even calculator, what values could be lowered in the soy burger model to help lower the break –even point?