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Irina-Kira [14]
4 years ago
15

MGM Resorts Incorporated is expected to grow at an exceptionally high rate over the next 2 years due to the success of Macau cas

ino. Growth in dividends is expected to be 20% for the next 2 years before reverted back to a constant rate of 4% that is expected to continue indefinitely. If MGM Resorts’ paid a $1.20 dividend yesterday (D0=$1.20) and the stock is valued according to a required rate of return of 14%, what is the value of a share of MGM Resorts stock today?
Business
1 answer:
Burka [1]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The value of a share of MGM Resorts stock today will be $16.42

Explanation:

In order to calculate the value of a share of MGM Resorts stock today we would have to calculate the following steps:

Step-1, Dividend for the next 2 years

Dividend per share in Year 0 (D0) = $1.20 per share

Dividend per share in Year 1 (D1) = $1.4400 per share [$1.20 x 120%]

Dividend per share in Year 2 (D2) = $1.7280 per share [$1.4400 x 120%]

Step-2, Share Price in Year 2

Dividend Growth Rate after Year 2 (g) = 4.00% per year

Required Rate of Return (Ke) = 14.00%

Share Price in Year 2 (P2) = D2(1 + g) / (Ke – g)

= $1.7280(1 + 0.04) / (0.14 – 0.04)

= $1.7971 / 0.10

= $17.97 per share

Step-3, The Current Stock Price

As per Dividend Discount Model, Current Stock Price the aggregate of the Present Value of the future dividend payments and the present value the share price in year 2

Year      Cash flow ($)        PVF at 14.00%           Present Value of cash flows ($)

                                                                             [Cash flows x PVF]

1            1.4400                   0.877193                           1.26

2           1.7280                  0.769468                          1.33

2            17.97                   0.769468                          13.83

TOTAL   16.42

Hence, the value of a share of MGM Resorts stock today will be $16.42

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Answer:

Normal Rate is $40 per hr

Overtime Rate is ($36.00 x 1.75) = $63.00.

Total hrs worked =50 hrs

Hence payment is:

(40hrs x $36) Normal Rate =$1,440

(10hrs * $63) Overtime Rate = $630

Gross Pay. $2,070

b) Since our prior gross pay was $52,200 and current gross pay is $2,070 this is still under the $100,000

Hence, we need to Pay tax 6% on the current gross pay amt.

Social Sec. Tax = $2,070 - 6% = $124.2

Medicare Tax = $2,070 - 1.5% = $31.05

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= $1,438.75

Net Pay= $1,438.75

Explanation:

5 0
4 years ago
Nevada Company experienced the following events during its first year of operations: Acquired an additional $1,000 cash from the
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Answer:

Event                                                      Classification

1.                                                              Asset Source

2.                                                             Asset Use

3.                                                             Asset Use

4.                                                             Asset Source

5.                                                             Asset Exchange

6.                                                             Not applicable (NA)

7.                                                              Asset Source

8.                                                              Asset Use

9.                                                              Asset Source

10.                                                             Asset Exchange

11.                                                              Asset Source

Explanation:

An asset is an economic resources controlled by an entity from which future economic benefits are expected.

In recording asset,  business events can result in asset source,asset use and asset exchange. Asset source is the acquisition of asset, asset use is consumption of existing asset and asset exchange is the transfer of asset from one source to another.

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4 years ago
You are purchasing an equipment for $ 200,000 for your new store. Assume the store has no other expenses or revenues other than
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Answer:

Negative cash balance of $210,000.

Explanation:

Given that,

cost of equipment = $200,000

Inventory purchased = $12,500

Cash balance = $2,000

Accounts payable = $4,500

Net cash flow at time zero:

= (cost of equipment) + (Increase in working capital)

= ($200,000) + (Inventory purchased + cash balance - Accounts payable)

= ($200,000) + ($12,500 + $2,000 - $4,500)

= ($200,000) + ($10,000)

= ($210,000)

Note: Negative values are in the parenthesis.  

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3 years ago
A company makes bicycles. It produces 850 bicycles a month. It buys the tires for bicycles from a supplier at a cost of Rs.60 pe
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Answer:

B: 522 tires

B: 39 orders

Explanation:

a. Calculation for EOQ

First step is to Calculate the Annual Demand which is D

D = Annual demand = (2 tires per bicycle) x (850 bicycles per month) x (12 months in a year)

D=20,400 tires

Second step the ordering cost is given in the question which is :

S = Ordering cost = 90 per order

Third step is to Calculate the carrying cost which is H

H = carrying cost = (15%) x ($60 per unit)

H= $ 13.50 per unit per year

Last step is to Calculate the EOQ

EOQ = √{ (2 x 20,400 x $90) / $13.50

EOQ= 522 tires

Therefore the EOQ is 522 tires which means that the company should order 522 tires each time they places an order.

b. Calculation for the number of orders per year

Using this formula

Number of orders per year = D / Q

Let plug in the formula

Number of orders per year = 20,400 / 522

Number of orders per year = 39 orders per year

Therefore the Number of orders per year will be

39 orders per year.

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3 years ago
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Answer:

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budgeted production = 1,000 units

standard rate = $189,400 / 1,000 = $189.40 per unit

total actual costs = $197,200

actual production = 1,120 units

actual rate = $197,200 / 1,120 = $176.07 per unit

  1. total fixed overhead variance = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs =  $197,200 - $189,400 = $7,800 unfavorable. The actual overhead expense was higher than the budgeted.
  2. controllable variance = (actual rate - standard rate) x actual units = ($176.07 - $189.40) x 1,120 units = -$14,929.60 favorable. The actual overhead rate was lower than the standard rate, that is why the variance is positive.
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4 years ago
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