Answer :
0.53
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the following :
Probability of female = probability of success on a single trial = 0.51
Number of babies = 80
Probability that more than half of the babies are female : p(X >80/2) = P(X > 40)
The problem can be solved using the binomial probability function :
P(X > 40) = [ p(X= 41) + p(X= 42) +.... +p(X= 80)]
In other to save computation time, we can use the binomial probability calculator
Hence ; P(X > 40) = 0.527 = 0.53
Answer:
I like science right now but last year i was a huge history buff
Answer:
yes,no, no, yes
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The answer would be C because b=+16 which means that it intercepts line y at 16, which is shown in the graph.
Step-by-step explanation:
