Answer:
- The probability that overbooking occurs means that all 8 non-regular customers arrived for the flight. Each of them has a 56% probability of arriving and they arrive independently so we get that
P(8 arrive) = (0.56)^8 = 0.00967
- Let's do part c before part b. For this, we want an exact booking, which means that exactly 7 of the 8 non-regular customers arrive for the flight. Suppose we align these 8 people in a row. Take the scenario that the 1st person didn't arrive and the remaining 7 did. That odds of that happening would be (1-.56)*(.56)^7.
Now take the scenario that the second person didn't arrive and the remaining 7 did. The odds would be
(0.56)(1-0.56)(0.56)^6 = (1-.56)*(.56)^7. You can run through every scenario that way and see that each time the odds are the same. There are a total of 8 different scenarios since we can choose 1 person (the non-arriver) from 8 people in eight different ways (combination).
So the overall probability of an exact booking would be [(1-.56)*(.56)^7] * 8 = 0.06079
- The probability that the flight has one or more empty seats is the same as the probability that the flight is NOT exactly booked NOR is it overbooked. Formally,
P(at least 1 empty seat) = 1 - P(-1 or 0 empty seats)
= 1 - P(overbooked) - P(exactly booked)
= 1 - 0.00967 - 0.06079
= 0.9295.
Note that, the chance of being both overbooked and exactly booked is zero, so we don't have to worry about that.
Hope that helps!
Have a great day :P
XYR=36 hope this helps I actually don't know if it is right so I'm so sry if it is wrong so sry
Based on the docx you showed me, the equation for the parabola is
and you want a table of values for a linear equation that intersects the parabola at (5, 6) and (-2, 34).
If you use these two points to create a line we get the equation:
(I just used point slope form)
This can be simplified to:
Now we just need to create a table of points on this line. We already have the points you gave and we can also use the y-intercept:
and the x-intercept:
.
So our table of value can be:
x | y
______|________
-2 | 34
0 | 242 / 7
5 | 6
121/20 | 0
<h3>
Answer: D. 80% of the home’s value</h3>
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Explanation:
As you probably expect, the first number 80 refers to the percentage the first loan covers. If the house is say $100,000, then the first loan is $80,000 while the second loan is the remaining $20,000.
An 80/20 mortgage, or similar, will have two monthly payments because you are getting two mortgages bundled together. Usually you should pay a down payment, though it may likely depend on your credit history. Those with good credit will pay less or no down payment, compared to those with worse credit will have to pay more down payment. A good rule of thumb is that 20% of the home's value is made as down payment, though this isn't what the "20" in "80/20" is referring to.
An 80% down payment is extremely high and unreasonable. Not many people have that kind of money laying around. A similar story applies to a 20% interest rate which is incredibly large for a mortgage rate (typically they are in the single digits such as 3%).
Hi there
Using equivalent ratios to help operate a business is useful for financial ratios.
There are common size ratios, liquidity ratios, efficiency ratios, and solvency ratios.
Ratios are used to let us compare one item to another. (For example, comparing 1 teacher to 25 students, or 1:25)
Did you have any answers to chose from? I just figured I'd provide you with what I knew about this subject to help in case there were no options to chose from.
