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Papessa [141]
1 year ago
7

Fining the Unit Rate.​

Mathematics
1 answer:
MAVERICK [17]1 year ago
5 0

Answer:

See below ~

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Option A</u>

  • Unit Rate = $2.49 / 24
  • Unit Rate = $1.04 per bottle

<u>Option B</u>

  • Unit rate = $6.00 / 48
  • Unit rate = $0.13 per bottle

<u>Option C</u>

  • Unit rate = $1.86 / 12
  • Unit rate = $0.16 per bottle

Option C has the lowest rate, hence it is the best deal.

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Why did the scientist create an exact duplicate of himself
galben [10]

To do his work that he didn't want to do.


3 0
3 years ago
Warm-Up
Serjik [45]

Answer:

using the formula

we replace the coordinates

the we calculate

the answer will be square 100 which will give us 10

5 0
2 years ago
Kiera and Trina joined a gym. The gym offers two different payment plans. Kiera chose Plan 1 and pays $25 a month and no fee to
Lady_Fox [76]

Answer:

t1 = $25m

t2 = $(10m + 100)

Step-by-step explanation:

Here we want to write equations

Kiera chose plan 1

$25 monthly and no joining fee

So the amount after m months will be 25 * m

t1 = $25m

Trina chose plan 2

$10 a month and $100 joining fee

after m months , total payment will be

10(m) + 100 = $(10m + 100)

Thus t1 = $25m and t2 = $(10m + 100)

6 0
3 years ago
Lan Ventor designs a new board game and offers the design to Paddington Games p.l.c.
Andrej [43]

In order to make the offer attractive such that it would earn £25,000 for Ian Vector, Paddington Games would have to sell 460 games.

The game can be sold for £25,000 or for £2,000 and then a fee of £50 for every game sold.

In order for the amount to be the same, the amount from games sold will have to equal the difference between the £25,000 and the £2,000.

Difference is:

= 25,000 - 2,000

= £23,000

The <u>number of games to be sold</u> is:

= Difference / Amount per game

= 23,000 / 50

= 460 games

In conclusion, 460 games need to be sold to make the offer attractive.

<em>Find out more at brainly.com/question/2865277.</em>

5 0
1 year ago
HELP ME! <br>Please, I will give brainliest and extra points :) Thank you
Arte-miy333 [17]

Answer:

solution set of f(x) = g(x) is x∈{0,1}


Step-by-step explanation:

For all exponential functions b^x,

b^0 is always 1, and b^1 is always b.


f(x) = -3/4 x + 2

g(x) = (1/4)^x + 1

g(0) = 2, f(0) = 2

g(1) = 5/4, f(1) = 5/4




7 0
3 years ago
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