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olga_2 [115]
3 years ago
10

Define the following: 1. Allocation of resources 2. Economic system 3. Market economy

Business
2 answers:
denis-greek [22]3 years ago
8 0
  1. Allocation of resources is the assignment of available resources to various uses.
  2. Economic system is a system of production, resource allocation and distribution of goods and services within a society or a given geographic area.
  3. Market economy is an economic system where supply and demand, direct the production of goods and services.
zlopas [31]3 years ago
4 0

<em><u>1. Allocation of resources</u></em>

<em><u>apportionment of productive assets among different uses. </u></em>

<em><u>2. Economic system</u></em>

<em><u>by which societies or governments organize and distribute available resources, services, and goods across a geographic region or country.</u></em>

<em><u>3. Market economy</u></em>

<em><u>an economic system where two forces, known as supply and demand, direct the production of goods and services.</u></em>

<em><u>eg</u></em><em><u>:</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>US</u></em><em><u>,</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>Japan</u></em>

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this was the Fair credit reporting act.


Hope I helped!!
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Birkner Corporation's flexible budget performance report for last month shows that actual indirect materials cost, a variable co
gavmur [86]

Answer:

$2.18 per machine hour

Explanation:

The calculation of Indirect material cost is shown below:-

Flexible budget indirect material = variable cost + indirect materials cost

= $30,444 + $8,142

= $38,586

Cost per machine hour for indirect material = Flexible budget indirect material ÷ Company machine hours

= $38,586 ÷ $17,700

= $2.18 per machine hour

7 0
3 years ago
Flannigan Company manufactures and sells a single product that sells for $450 per unit; variable costs are $270. Annual fixed co
ehidna [41]

Answer:

$4,812,500 Dollar sales to achieve EBT of 1,125,000

Explanation:

The goal would be to calcualte the break even formula adding in the dividend the target profit:

\frac{FixedCost+Target Profit}{Contribution Margin Ratio} = $Sales to Target Profit

Where:

\frac{Contribution Margin}{Sales Revenue} = $Contribution Margin Ratio

Where:

$Contribution Margin - Fixed Cost = Net Income

So first  step

$450 Sales - $270 Variable Cost = $180 Contribution Margin

Second:

180/450 = 40% CM ratio

Finally:

\frac{FixedCost+Target Profit}{Contribution Margin Ratio} = $Sales to Target Profit

\frac{800,000+1,125,000}{0.40} = $4,812,500

3 0
3 years ago
What is the difference between a callable bond and a convertible bond?
lisov135 [29]

Explanation:Convertible bonds. Are corporate bonds that can be converted by the holder into the common stock of the issuing company.

Callable bonds. Called provision option held by the company to repurchase the bond at specific price. Is also called redeemable bonds, jump up etc. While most callable bonds are coupon bonds.

There are no big differences between the two, convertible bonds are often callable, eg corporate bonds can be convertible/callable or the both.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Two incinerators are being considered by a waste management company. Design A has an initial cost of $2,500,000, has annual oper
IrinaK [193]

Answer: please refer to the explanation section

Explanation:

Design A

Initial cost $2500 000

operating and maintenance cost = $800 000

Overhauls = $1250000 in 5 years

R = 5%

PV= overhaul cost/(1+r)^n + maintenance cost(1 -(1+r)^-5)/r

PV = 1250000/(1 + 0.05)^5  + 800000(1 - (1 + 0.05)^-5)/0.05

PV = 979407.71 + 3463581.34 = 4442989.05

costs to be capitalized = present value of overhaul costs = 979407. 71

Design A will be valued at = 2500000 +  979407. 71 = 347907.71

Total cost of Choosing Design A = 979407.71 + 3463581.34 + 2500000

Total cost of Choosing Design A = 6942989.05

Design B

initial cost = $5750000

Operating and Maintenance = $600000

Overhauls = $3000000 in 10 years

PV= overhaul cost/(1+r)^n + maintenance cost(1 -(1+r)^-5)/r

PV = 3000000/(1 + 0.05)^10  + 600000(1 - (1 + 0.05)^-10)/0.05

PV = 1841739.76 + 4633040.96 = 6474780.72

Cost to be capitalized = overhaul cost = 1841739.76

Design B will be value at = 1841739.76 + 5750000 = 7591739.76

Total cost of costs Design B = 1841739.76 + 5750000 + 4633040.96

Total cost of costs Design B = 12224780.72

Design B involves more costs than Design A. Present value for total cost for choosing Design B is Higher than the present value for Total costs of choosing Design A

Choose Design A

3 0
3 years ago
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