Answer:
zero
Explanation:
The activity in this scenario is fund raising/ issue note to a bank which is booked in financing activities, not in operating activities.
Thus we can said "there's no operating activity in Madison Company cash flow of 2016" if there's no other information.
Answer:Unity of command
Explanation:Henri Fayol principle of management is one of the most widely accepted standard for effective management of Organisations. This principles highlights fourteen(14) points that highlights how management can carry out their responsibilities.
UNITY OF COMMAND IS ONE OF THE PRINCIPLES OF MANAGEMENT BY HENRI FAYOL WHICH INVOLVES A TOP-DOWN(MANAGERS TO SUPERVISORS TO THE JUNIOR PERSONNEL) APPROACH TO GIVING INSTRUCTIONS.
Answer:
Identify job leads and set up interviews.
Explanation:
Answer:
AFS 2004 market price decline exceeded 2005 market price recovery
No No
The security cannot be classified as available-for-sale because the unrealized gains and losses are recognized in the Income Statement. Unrealized gains and losses on available-for-sale securities are recognized in owners' equity, not earnings.
The second part of the question is somewhat ambiguous. The 2004 price decline could exceed or be exceeded by the 2005 price recovery. The loss in the first year is not related in amount and does not constrain the realized gain in the second year.
The way to answer the question is to read the right column heading as implying that the earlier price decline must exceed the later price recovery. With that interpretation, the correct answer is no.
For example, assume a cost of $10 and a market value of $4 at the end of the first year. An unrealized loss of $6 is recognized in earnings. During the second year, the security is sold for $12. A realized gain of $8 is recognized-the increase in the market value from the end of the first year to the sale in the second year. Thus, the market decline in the first year did not exceed the recovery in year two. (It could have exceeded the recovery in year two but there is no requirement that it must.)
Explanation:
Answer:
12.085 %
Explanation:
WACC = Cost of Equity x Weight of Equity + Cost of Preference Stock x Weight of Preference Stock + Cost of Debt x Weight of Debt
Remember to use the after tax cost of debt :
after tax cost of debt = interest x ( 1 - tax rate)
= 8.00 % x (1 - 0.35)
= 5.20 %
therefore,
WACC = 22.00 % x 0.40 + 8.50 % x 0.05 + 5.20 % x 0.55
= 12.085 %
thus
the firm's WACC given a tax rate of 35 percent is 12.085 %
