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1 year ago

7

A car used 1/72 of a galloon of gas to drive 1/3 of a mile.At this rate,how many miles can the car travel using 1 galloon of gas

?

1 answer:

KiRa [710]1 year ago

7 0

Answer:

24

Step-by-step explanation:

3 x 1/72 = 1 mile

72/3 = 24

The car will use 1 gallon of gas per 24 miles

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Franklin rolls a pair of six-sided fair dice with sides numbered 1 through 6.

Zarrin [17]

Answer:

The answer is 7/36.

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you find out how many possible outcomes there are from rolling a pair of dice. On one cube, you can roll a 1,2,3,4,5, or 6; so there are 6 outcomes. Since there are two cubes, you multiply 6 by itself to get a total of 36 possible outcomes. Next, you find the probability of the sum of the numbers rolled being an even number; the possibilities are 2,4,6,8,10, or 12, which is 6/36. The probability of rolling a multiple of 5; the one possibility is just 5, since we already accounted for rolling a 10 as an even number. So that is 1/36. The word <u>or</u> says that we add the two probabilities, so the final answer is 6/36+1/36=7/36.

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3 years ago

Yesny had $240 to spend on five pairs of jeans. How much did each pair of

krek1111 [17]

Answer:

5x + 10 = 240

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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Mrs. Clark has a glass vase with a base shaped like a hexagon, as shown. The vase is 30 cm tall and the hexagon base has an area

Lisa [10]

Answer: The correct option is fourth, i.e., 1935 cm³.

Explanation:

It is given that the vase is 30 cm tall and the hexagon base has an area of 64.5 cm².

The area of a hexagon base is,

$A=\frac{3\sqrt{3}} {2}a^2$

Where, a is the side length.

The volume of the a hexagon glass is,

$V=\frac{3\sqrt{3}} {2}a^2\times h$

$V=A\times h$

Where, A is area of base of hexagon and h is height of the hexagon glass.

$V=64.5\times 30$

$V=1935$

Therefore the volume of the glass is 1935 cm³ and the glass can hold 1935 cm³ water. So, fourth option is correct.

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3 years ago

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ella [17]

Step-by-step explanation:

each combination of 2 specific numbers has the same probability. there is no difference in probability between the individual numbers.

remember, a probability is always desired cases over all possible cases.

we have 4 different possible outcomes every time we spin the spinner.

to get a specific number has the probability of 1/4, because we want 1 specific outcome, and have in total 4 different possibilities.

now, we spin a second time. the probability to get a specific number is again 1/4.

but, if we consider both events to be connected, when we want to know the probability to get 2 specific numbers when spinning twice, we have to multiply the individual probabilities :

1/4 × 1/4 = 1/16

so, the probability to land first on a 5, and then secondly on a 2 is 1/16.

the same as for landing first on a 3, and then on a 5.

the same as for landing first on a 4, and then on a 4 (again).

that is because the individual spin results are independent. the result of the first spin does not impact in any way the result of the second spin (in contrary to e.g. pulling multiple cards without returning the previously pulled cards).

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2 years ago

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dlinn [17]

Answer:

its already solved

Step-by-step explanation:

u solved.it already

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