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tatiyna
2 years ago
12

Examine the following piecewise function.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Semmy [17]2 years ago
7 0

A piecewise function is a function that's simply built from pieces of different functions over several intervals.

<h3>What is a piecewise function?</h3>

Your information is incomplete as the function isn't given. Therefore, an overview will be given. It should be noted that a piecewise function simply means a function that's defined by multiple sub functions.

In this case, each sub-function applies to different interval in the domain as it's way of expressing the function.

Learn more about piecewise function on:

brainly.com/question/17966003

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The cost of six filters is 29.94 since each filter costs 4.99
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)) Omar used 28 centimeters of tape to wrap 4 presents. How much tape will Omar need in
pav-90 [236]

Answer:

He would need 42 cm *or 14cm

Step-by-step explanation:

28/4 is 7

that means that he used 7 cm of tape per present

6 x 7 is 42

that means that he would need 42 cm of tape

4 to 28

6 to 42

*If he already has 4 presents done and he needs to 2 more present then he would need 14 cm, 2 x 7 is 14

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Daniel read 3 books in 2.5 weeks. Which rate represents this situation?
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The answer is C: 3 books, 2.5 weeks.
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3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Two piecewise functions are shown below. What is the value of
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]

Step-by-step explanation:

I am not sure what your problem here is.

you understand the inequality signs ?

anyway, to get

6×f(-2) + 3×g(1)

we can calculate every part of the expression separately, and then combine all the results into one final result.

f(-2)

we look at the definition.

into what category is -2 falling ? the one with x<-2, or the one with x>=-2 ?

is -2 < -2 ? no.

is -2 >= -2 ? yes, because -2 = -2. therefore, it is also >= -2.

so, we have to use

1/3 x³

for x = -2 that is

1/3 × (-2)³ = 1/3 × -8 = -8/3

g(1)

again, we look at the definition.

into what category is 1 falling ? the one with x > 2 ? or the one with x <= 1 ?

is 1 > 2 ? no.

is 1 <= 1 ? yes, because 1=1. therefore it is also <= 1.

so we have to use

2×|x - 1| + 3

for x = 1 we get

2×0 + 3 = 3

6×f(-2) = 6 × -8/3 = 2× -8 = -16

3×g(1) = 3× 3 = 9

and so in total we get

6×f(-2) + 3×g(1) = -16 + 9 = -7

3 0
2 years ago
If 6 men finish a piece of work in 8 days, how long will it rake 4 men to​
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Answer:

6 men finish a piece of work in 8 days

1 men finish a piece of work in 8*6 days

4men will finish a piece of work in 48/4

days

..

which is equal to 12 days

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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