Answer:
passion, persistence, perseverance, and preparation
Explanation:
The correct option is (a) sales; average book value of fixed assets.
The fixed asset turnover ratio is computed as sales divided by average book value of fixed assets.
The fixed asset turnover ratio demonstrates the effectiveness of a company's current fixed assets in driving sales. A greater ratio suggests that management is making better use of its fixed assets. No information can be gleaned from a high FAT ratio about a company's capacity to produce reliable earnings or cash flows.
The ratio of sales to the value of fixed assets is known as fixed-asset turnover. It shows how effectively the company is generating sales by utilizing its fixed assets.
A greater ratio is typically preferred since it suggests that the business is effective at producing sales or revenues from its asset base. A lower ratio suggests that a business is not utilizing its resources effectively and may be experiencing internal issues.
Learn more about fixed asset turnover ratio
brainly.com/question/24085720
#SPJ4
Porque los humanos tienen recursos limitados pero deseos y necesidades ilimitados. Actividades realizadas por otros para nosotros. Recursos que están ampliamente disponibles y que nunca se pueden usar.
(Because humans have limited resources but unlimited wants and needs. Activities done by others for us. ... Resources that are widely available and can never be used up.)
Answer:
1. Manufacturing overhead applied = Actual hours * Predetermined overhead rate
Manufacturing overhead applied = 13300 * $20
Manufacturing overhead applied = $266,000
From the question, Osborn Manufacturing actually incurred $275,000 of manufacturing overhead. Hence, the Manufacturing overhead is under-applied because the applied manufacturing overhead is less than the actual manufacturing overhead
Hence, Manufacturing overhead under-applied = $275,000 - $266,000
= $9,000
2. Since the applied manufacturing overhead is less than the actual manufacturing overhead, the gross margin would decrease by $9,000. The journal entry will use the under-applied manufacturing overhead for record.
Answer: Return on a risky security minus the risk-free rate.
Explanation:
The excess return is known to be the amount of return on a risky asset that exceeds the return that one would have received had they invested in a risk-less asset such as Treasury Bills.
If the return you received on shares was 5% and the return on riskfree assets is 2%, your excess return is 3%.
Please do react or comment if you need any clarification or if the question helped you so you can help others as well. Thank you.