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Rus_ich [418]
3 years ago
5

the original price for a set of golf clubs is $500 at the beginning of the seasons the price was marked up by 20% at the end of

the seasons the price at the beginning of the season is marked down by 20% how does the final price compare with the original price of $500​
Mathematics
2 answers:
DaniilM [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

price marked up by 20%= 500+ \frac{20}{100}×500

                                        =$600

price marked down by 20%= 600- \frac{20}{100}×600

                                             =$480

the final price is less than the original price

Blizzard [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: The final price is less than the original

Step-by-step explanation:

    Let us break this down a bit.

The original price is $500

-> At the beginning, the price was marked up by 20%

-> At the end, the price at the beginning of the season is marked down by 20%

    We are solving for: "How does the final price compare with the original price of $500​"

        First, we will find the price at the beginning.

-> Please note a percent divided by 100 becomes a decimal

20% / 100 = 0.2

$500 * 0.2 = $100

$500 + $100 = $600

     Now, we will find the price at the end.

$600 * 0.2 = $120

$600 - $120 = <u>$480</u>

     The final price is less than the original price of $500.

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Answer:

a = 10 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of triangle, A = 51 cm²

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Let height of triangle be a cm

<em><u>Formula:-</u></em>

A=\dfrac{1}{2}\times a\times b

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3 years ago
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Marat540 [252]

Answer:

a. 0.75

b. 0.5526

c.  0.1974

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability is typically expressed as a fraction where the numerator is the number of desired outcomes and the denominator is the total number of outcomes. In this case the suitable parts is the desired outcome and the total shipment is the total parts:

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The probability the both the first and second part are suitable:

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Since the probability of getting a suitable part the first time is 15/20, then there is one less suitable part and one less part overall to choose on the second time, or 14/19.

Lastly, the probability of choosing a suitable part the first time is again 15/20, but the second part not being suitable would be 5/19:

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What is 1.74 divided by (-0.06)
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Not even gonna try answering this question cause it looks to complicated ​
Citrus2011 [14]
The answer is B.

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