Answer:
A. the portion of the investment opportunity set that lies above the global minimum variance portfolio.
Explanation:
The Efficient frontier refers to the portfolios set that involves that expected return whose return is high at the level of minimum risk so the asset that contains the high risk profile that investment opportunity set portion should be above the variance portfolio i.e. minimum globally
Therefore the correct option is a.
Answer:
C. An auction market
Explanation:
Option A is wrong because merchant wholesalers purchase any products directly from the manufacturers and sell those to the retailers, or consumers. In that case, buyers and sellers do not need to come together to complete a transaction.
Option B is incorrect as the warehouse club is recognized as a retail store where customers can purchase bulk products to reduce the expenses. In that case, only sell is the motive.
Option D is wrong because drop shippers cannot hold the inventory to their stocks. Therefore, customers and manufacturers will not come together.
<u><em>Option C</em></u> is correct because, in an auction market, the buyer and the seller have to come at the same time to complete a transaction. In that market, the buyer will directly negotiate with the seller to purchase a product or something else.
Answer:
d. None of the above are correct.
Explanation:
In a centrally planned environment, the government make decisions on production.
In a market economy, market forces make production decisions.
Society relies more upon prices to allocate resources when the economy is centrally planned than a market economy.
The self-interest of households is reflected more fully in the outcome of a market planned economy than in the outcome of a centrally planned economy
Government plays a larger role in the economic affairs of a centrally planned economy than in the economic affairs of a market planned economy.
I hope my answer helps you
Answer:
The answer is 4.232%
Explanation:
The formula for determining the price of a bond which can also be used to find Yield-to-Maturity(YTM) is:
PV = PMT/(1+r)^1 + PMT/(1+r)^2 .......PMT/(1+r)^1 PMT + FV/(1+r)^n
We are to calculate Yield-to-Maturity(YTM) which is the rate of return on the bond to an investor.
Using a Financial calculator. Input the following:
N = (18 years - 2years) x 2 = 32
1/Y = ?
PV = 109
PMT = 9.5/2 = 4.75
FV = 100
1/Y = 4.232%
Answer with its Explanation:
Journal entries required:
(a). To record establishment of the fund
When the petty cash fund was set up the entry was increase in petty cash and decrease in cash balance of the company which is increase in one asset (Petty cash asset) and decrease in other asset (cash asset).
Dr Petty cash $150
Cr Cash $150
(b). Reimbursement of the fund at the end of the current period.
The entry of spending of money on entertainment $70, postage $30 and printing $22 are all expenses incurred which is increase in expense and increase in the expenses are debited. The cash is paid here which means that the cash asset is decreased which must be credited.
Dr Entertainment expenses $70
Dr Postage expense $30
Dr Printing Expense $22
Cr Petty cash $122
