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Norma-Jean [14]
2 years ago
5

Help thank you so much

Mathematics
2 answers:
Setler [38]2 years ago
8 0

Answer: i belive it is 3/8

Step-by-step explanation:

Mars2501 [29]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

5/8

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 8 intervals, the tack ends at the 5th interval, so 5/8

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THIS IS THE LAST QUESTION IDK HOW DO SOLVE IT :(
harkovskaia [24]

Answer:

6 laps.

Step-by-step explanation:

On Monday she runs 2x + 8 miles, where x miles = the length of the trail.

On Tuesday she runs 4x + 4 miles and this is the same distance as Monday, so

2x + 8 = 4x + 4

4 = 2x

x = 2  miles which is the length of the trail.

So each day she runs 4(2) + 4 = 12 miles.

So on Saturday she runs  12/ 2 = 6 laps.

4 0
3 years ago
Hey! Can someone help me?
bazaltina [42]

Answer:

I believe the answer is B

5 0
3 years ago
Solve log2 x = log5 3+1 by graphing. round to the nearest tenth
Ket [755]

Answer:

17

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
A cook has 6 and 1/2 cup of sliced carrots how many 3/4 cup servings of carrots is this
aalyn [17]

Answer:

8 and 2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide 6.5 by 0.75 and you get 26/3, or 8 and 2/3

5 0
3 years ago
A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2\%2%2, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector rando
kipiarov [429]

The data in the question seems a bit erroneous. I am writing the correct question below:

A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2%, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector randomly selects 4 chips for an inspection. Assuming the chips are independent, what is the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective? Lets break this problem up into smaller pieces to understand the strategy behind solving it.

Answer:

The probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective is 0.0776.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question states that the probability of defective chips is 2% i.e. 0.02. Let p denote the probability of selecting a defective chip so, p = 0.02

An inspector selects 4 chips, which means n=4 and we need to compute the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective. Let X be the number of defective chips selected. We need to compute P(X≥1) which means either 1, 2, 3 or 4 chips can be defective.

We will use the binomial distribution formula to solve this problem. The formula is:

<u>P(X=x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ</u>

where n = total no. of trials

          p = probability of success

          x = no. of successful trials

          q = probability of failure = 1-p

we have n=4, p=0.02 and q=1-0.02=0.98.

We need to compute P(X≥1) which is equal to:

P(X≥1) = P(X=1) + P(X=2) + P(X=3) + P(X=4)

A shorter method to do this is to use the total probability theorem:

P(X≥1) = 1 - P(X<1)

          = 1 - P(X=0)

          = 1 - ⁴C₀ (0.02)⁰(0.98)⁴⁻⁰

          = 1 - (0.98)⁴

          = 1 - 0.9224

P(X≥1) = 0.0776

4 0
4 years ago
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