Answer:
tht looks so difficult
Step-by-step explanation:
There are 
ways of drawing a 4-card hand, where
is the so-called binomial coefficient.
There are 13 different card values, of which we want the hand to represent 4 values, so there are 
ways of meeting this requirement.
For each card value, there are 4 choices of suit, of which we only pick 1, so there are 
ways of picking a card of any given value. We draw 4 cards from the deck, so there are 
possible hands in which each card has a different value.
Then there are 
total hands in which all 4 cards have distinct values, and the probability of drawing such a hand is
Answer:
the awnser is 607,334 because when you multiply by 3 its the same like multipliying on
Step-by-step explanation:
A. you are given that f(1)=5 therefore f(1) cannot also equal 1 unless it is a different equation.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
