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Dmitry [639]
2 years ago
12

Find the original price given the total amount and tip rate. Total price 307.32 tip rate 20%

Mathematics
1 answer:
eduard2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

the answer is 61.3

Step-by-step explanation:

you have to dived one number by the other

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If you are 16 years old then you are a teenager Question 14
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3 years ago
PLEASE HELP NOW NOW NOW PLEASE PLEASE HELP
bija089 [108]

Answer:

$46.00

Step-by-step explanation:

$46.00 - $20 + $5 = $21

7 0
2 years ago
What is the product of -5x^5(-8x^4-9x-9)
Phoenix [80]
-5x^5 * -8x^4 - 5x^5*-9x - 5x^5*-9

= 40x^9 + 45x^6 + 45x^5
5 0
3 years ago
In one town, the number of burglaries in a week has a poisson distribution with a mean of 1.9. find the probability that in a ra
tester [92]

Let X be the number of burglaries in a week. X follows Poisson distribution with mean of 1.9

We have to find the probability that in a randomly selected week the number of burglaries is at least three.

P(X ≥ 3 ) = P(X =3) + P(X=4) + P(X=5) + ........

= 1 - P(X < 3)

= 1 - [ P(X=2) + P(X=1) + P(X=0)]

The Poisson probability at X=k is given by

P(X=k) = \frac{e^{-mean} mean^{x}}{x!}

Using this formula probability of X=2,1,0 with mean = 1.9 is

P(X=2) = \frac{e^{-1.9} 1.9^{2}}{2!}

P(X=2) = \frac{0.1495 * 3.61}{2}

P(X=2) = 0.2698

P(X=1) = \frac{e^{-1.9} 1.9^{1}}{1!}

P(X=1) = \frac{0.1495 * 1.9}{1}

P(X=1) = 0.2841

P(X=0) = \frac{e^{-1.9} 1.9^{0}}{0!}

P(X=0) = \frac{0.1495 * 1}{1}

P(X=0) = 0.1495

The probability that at least three will become

P(X ≥ 3 ) = 1 - [ P(X=2) + P(X=1) + P(X=0)]

= 1 - [0.2698 + 0.2841 + 0.1495]

= 1 - 0.7034

P(X ≥ 3 ) = 0.2966

The probability that in a randomly selected week the number of burglaries is at least three is 0.2966

5 0
2 years ago
How do you solve this? cosθ-tanθcosθ=0
laila [671]
First, lets note that tan(\theta)\cdot cos(\theta)=sin(\theta). This leads us with the following problem:

cos(\theta)-sin(\theta)=0

Lets add sin on both sides, and we get:

cos(\theta)=sin(\theta)

Now if we divide with sin on both sides we get:

\frac{cos(\theta)}{sin(\theta)}=1

Now we can remember how cot is defined, it is (cos/sin). So we have:

cot(\theta)=1

Now take the inverse of cot and we get:
\theta=cot^{-1}(1)=\pi\cdot n+ \frac{\pi}{4} , \quad n\in \mathbb{Z}

In general we have cot^{-1}(1)=\frac{\pi}{4}, the reason we have to add pi times n, is because it is a function that has multiple answers, see the picture:

4 0
3 years ago
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