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2 years ago

Which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x – 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Basile [38]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

1st q answer is f(x) is one- to -one function and 2nd q answer is 2

Brut [27]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

<h2>1) f(x) is one - to - one function</h2><h2>2) 2 </h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

<h3>inverse of f(x) </h3>

Let f(x) = y

y = 2x - 3

x = y + 3 / 2

inverse of f(x) = x + 3 / 2

<h3>g(x) = inverse of f(x) </h3>

f [g(2)]

f [2+3/2]

f [5/2]

(2×5/2)-3

5-3

= 2

<h3>Therefore f [g(2)] = 2 </h3>

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