Which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x – 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?
2 answers:
Answer:
1st q answer is f(x) is one- to -one function and 2nd q answer is 2
Answer:
<h2>
1) f(x) is one - to - one function</h2><h2>2) 2 </h2>
Step-by-step explanation:
<h3>inverse of f(x) </h3>
Let f(x) = y
y = 2x - 3
x = y + 3 / 2
inverse of f(x) = x + 3 / 2
<h3>g(x) = inverse of f(x) </h3>
f [g(2)]
f [2+3/2]
f [5/2]
(2×5/2)-3
5-3
= 2
<h3>Therefore f [g(2)] = 2 </h3>
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