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Svetllana [295]
2 years ago
11

Which statement could be used to explain why f(x) = 2x – 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Basile [38]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

1st q answer is f(x) is one- to -one function and 2nd q answer is 2

Brut [27]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

<h2>1) f(x) is one - to - one function</h2><h2>2) 2 </h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

<h3>inverse of f(x) </h3>

Let f(x) = y

y = 2x - 3

x = y + 3 / 2

inverse of f(x) = x + 3 / 2

<h3>g(x) = inverse of f(x) </h3>

f [g(2)]

f [2+3/2]

f [5/2]

(2×5/2)-3

5-3

= 2

<h3>Therefore f [g(2)] = 2 </h3>
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valentina_108 [34]

Answer:

If the total cost of the 4 necklaces was 18.40 then that means in order to find out how much she spent on pendents she needs to subtract the amount of beads from from the total cost so,

18.40-11.20=7.20

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3 years ago
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joja [24]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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4 0
2 years ago
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matrenka [14]

Answer:

( B.) 6, 1, -2 , -4

Step-by-step explanation:

A coefficient is a number multiplied by a variable. So, in this case let's take a look at the problem.

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(If you are wondering that why m is a coefficient its because it is also known as 1m)

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Hope this helps!

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