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RSB [31]
2 years ago
6

Answer the questions and answer the questions please please please please please ​

Mathematics
1 answer:
dolphi86 [110]2 years ago
4 0
42% of 50 => 42.50/100 = 21
110% of 80 => 110.80/100=88
50% of 56 => 50.56/100=28
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Joshua decided he did not want to study for the test so he randomly chose answers to a 5 question test. If each question had 4 a
Veronika [31]

Answer:

there is a 0.0009765625 in 1 chance that he got 100%.

Step-by-step explanation:

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5 0
3 years ago
Use theorem 7. 4. 2 to evaluate the given laplace transform. do not evaluate the convolution integral before transforming. (writ
irga5000 [103]

With convolution theorem the equation is proved.

According to the statement

we have given that the equation and we have to evaluate with the convolution theorem.

Then for this purpose, we know that the

A convolution integral is an integral that expresses the amount of overlap of one function as it is shifted over another function.

And the given equation is solved with this given integral.

So, According to this theorem the equation becomes the

\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} e^{-\tau} \cos \tau d \tau \right) = \frac{ \mathscr{L} (e^{-\tau} \cos \tau ) }{s} \\\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} e^{-\tau} \cos \tau d \tau \right) = \frac{\frac{s+1}{(s+1)^2+1}}{s} \\\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} e^{-\tau} \cos \tau d \tau \right) = \frac{1}{s}\left (\frac{s+1}{(s+1)^2+1} \right).

Then after solving, it become and with theorem it says that the

\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} f(\tau) d\tau \right) = \frac{\mathscr{L} ( f(\tau))}{s} .

Hence by this way the given equation with convolution theorem is proved.

So, With convolution theorem the equation is proved.

Learn more about convolution theorem here

brainly.com/question/15409558

#SPJ4

3 0
2 years ago
Which of the following is an irrational number
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I think the answer is d
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216 you multiply 12 by 18. Hope it helped!!!!!

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3 years ago
I don’t pay attention in class
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Pay attention then lol.
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3 years ago
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