1/1+z+4/z+z^2 +1
1/2z =4/2z^2 +1
1/2z=2(z^2+2)/2z^2
1/2z=z^4+2z^2
z^5/2+2z^2
=therefore it has no solution I think this is the stes i m not sure sorry i m not sure ,try asking somebody else to cuz i m not sure
ANSWER:
r = 
Explaination:
Convert the given curve into the the polar form.
x = rcosθ
y = rsinθ
in f(x,y) = (x²-y²) - √(x²+y²) = 0
put the values of x & y in given curve equation.
We get at,
g(r,θ) = (r²cos²θ - r²sin²θ) - √(r²cos²θ + r²sin²θ) = 0
g(r,θ) = r²(cos²θ - sin²θ) - √r² = 0
We know that,
cos²θ - sin²θ = cos2θ
g(r,θ) = r²(cos2θ) - r = 0
Solve for r
Finally we get:
r = 
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Rewrite log7(49)=x log 7 ( 49 ) = x in exponential form using the definition of a logarithm. If x and b are positive real numbers and b does not equal 1 , then logb(x)=y log b ( x ) = y is equivalent to by=x b y = x .
Answer:
it can be a pain when nobody helps... ur top right is correct
Step-by-step explanation:
heres a screenshot ..
Answer:
P(C4) = 0.0711
Step-by-step explanation:
consider the first draw = 15/23 since it cannot be a blue ball
The second draw = 21/29 since 6 more red balls will be added after the draw since a blue ball cannot be drawn
the third draw = 27/35 since 6 more red balls will be added after each draw since a blue ball cannot be drawn
therefore the total number of red balls will be = 15 + 6 + 6 + 6 = 33 red balls after the 4th draw. the total ball now in the urn= 33 red + 4 blue = 41
Hence the probability of drawing a blue ball at the fourth draw after drawing red balls at the previous attempts = 8/41
P(C4) = P ( fourth ball is blue ) * P( first ball red)*P(second ball red) *P(third ball red )
= (8/41) * (15/23) * (21/29)* (27/35) = 0.0711