Answer:
The equipment shall be financially attractive when we have annual cash inflow in excess of 132,686
Explanation:
Calculate the PVIFA ( Present value of interest factor annuity ) at r = 12 % and n = 4 years
= [ 1 - (1.12)-4 ] / 0.12 = 3.03734935
Minimum annual cash flow needed = Investment / PVIFA = 403,014 / 3.03734935
= 132686
The equipment shall be financially attractive when we have annual cash inflow in excess of 132,686
Answer: It has 1 milion dollars in required reserves
Explanation:
Tot. Res = Vault cash + Deposit with Federal Reserve
Tot. Res = 2 million dollars + 8 million dollars = 10 million dollars
Total reserves are the sum of excess reserves and required reserves
.
Tot. Res. = Exce. Res. + Req. Res.
10 million dollars = 9 million dollars = Req. Res.
Req. Res. = 10 million dollars- 9 million dollars.
Req. Res. = 1 million dollars.
Answer:
In the explanation is a short point of view about the cyber defense and the perimeter oriented posture.
Explanation:
To begin with, the concept known as "Cibersecurity" refers to the process of protection of computer systems and everything related to them like softwares, hardwares or any electronic data that could be harmful and sensitive for the company. The reason why this type of practice has been rising up the last years is due to the fact that the "internet of things" has been growing up as well and everyday the companies need to protect their information more and more. Moreover, the "perimeter-oriented" security posture implicates the focus on the external networks as being bad and on the other side the internal networks as being good and stable. So the reason why the companies should consider the cyber defense important is because they need to protect all the information that could be use against them.
Answer:
The answer is $862.35
Explanation:
Explanation:
This is a semiannual paying coupon, meaning interest are paid twice in year.
N(Number of periods) = 30periods ( 15 years x 2)
I/Y(Yield to maturity) = 6 percent
PV(present value or market price) = ?
PMT( coupon payment) = $50
FV( Future value or par value) = $1,000.
We are using a Financial calculator for this.
N= 30; I/Y = 6; PMT = 50; FV= $1,000; CPT PV= -862.35
Therefore, the market price of the bond is $862.35.
Answer:
Dealer Market
Explanation:
In a dealer market, multiple dealers give out their various prices on the sales and purchases of their specific and particular security of instrument. It is a financial tool for dealers in the market. The dealer market becomes more efficient for financial securities because it provides superior mechanism which should be protected.
It enables buyers and sellers to buy and sell independently through the market makers, known as dealers.
Foreign exchange and bonds are found in the dealer market.
In the secondary market, securities are traded by investors while in the primary market, they are created.
