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Alex777 [14]
1 year ago
13

A couple advises a banker that their total income includes both salary and disability payments. How should disability payments,

which are non-taxable, be analyzed in order to fairly calculate the customer’s ability to pay?.
Business
1 answer:
Korolek [52]1 year ago
5 0

The way that disability payments be analyzed in order to calculate the customer’s ability to pay are:

  • The use of SSA Notice of Award or any equivalent document “does not have a defined expiration date
  • The use of income from this source that qualifies income.

<h3>How do you calculate disabilities?</h3>

In the calculation of how much a person can receive as your disability benefit, there is the use of SSA via the use of the average amount a person have earned per month over the timeframe of their adult years, and one adjusted for inflation.

One can do so by entering your typical annual income. and this income will be adjusted to know the wage growth over a person's career.

Note that The way that disability payments be analyzed in order to calculate the customer’s ability to pay are:

  • The use of SSA Notice of Award or any equivalent document “does not have a defined expiration date
  • The use of income from this source that qualifies income.

Learn more about disability payments from

brainly.com/question/16810465

#SPJ1

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4 0
3 years ago
Desired consumption is Cd = 100 + 0.8Y - 500r - 0.5G, and desired investment is Id = 100 - 500r. Real money demand is Md/P = Y -
allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

Under a) r=0.1;Id=50;Cd=750;P=7 b) P only changes and is now 9.33

Explanation:

a)  In a closed economy national savings are equal to investments or:

S d = I d = Y - Cd - G

Id = Y - 100 - 0.8*Y + 500*r - 0.5*G

100 - 500*r = 0.2*Y -100 + 500*r -0.5*G

200 - 1000*r = 0.2*1000 - 0.5*200=100

-1000*r=-100

r= 0.1

i = 0.15

Id = 100 -50 =50

Cd= 100 + 800 - 50 - 100=750

P = Md/Y-2000 i

P= 2100/1000 -300=7

b) If money supply increases to 2800, the price level would be:

P = 2800/Y - 2000*i = 2800/Y- 2000*(i-inflation)

However, since the variables determining real interest rate remained the same, r is also the same or 0.1 and i is 0.15. Consumption and investment remain the same, only price level changes or:

P=9.33  

4 0
3 years ago
1. After multiple rounds of layoffs, a plastics processing plant goes into bankruptcy because it has failed to keep up with tech
Gwar [14]

1. After multiple rounds of layoffs, a plastics processing plant goes into bankruptcy because it has failed to keep up with technological developments in the field. It is called dissolution.

2. Crisis is a multinational conglomerate facing a turbulent environment embarks on a cost-cutting campaign instead of spinning off companies and divisions that are no longer in line with the company’s core competencies.

3. Blinded is a college president doesn’t recognize that the availability of free online education is going to dramatically reduce the number of people who are willing to pay for a college degree.

Explanation:

Dissolution is the final phase of liquidation, the closure of a company, and the transfer of the property and assets of the company. Relationship breakup is the first of two phases of relationship termination.

For example, marriage breakdown. It is the last winding-up process of corporate law.

There are several types of circumstances where disaster conditions can be considered. Which include: social disturbance or interruption of the family, as stated at the outset of the lesson. Natural hazards -floods, tornados, storm events, explosions and other natural phenomena incident.

8 0
3 years ago
Annual maintenance cost for a particular section of highway pavement are $3,000.The placement of a new surface would reduce the
UkoKoshka [18]

Answer:

$17,877

Explanation:

initial outlay = ?

net cash flows years 1 to 5 = $3,000 - $400 = $2,600

net cash flows years 6 to 10 = $3,000 - $800 = $2,200

assuming that the discount rate is 6%, we need to determine the maximum amount of initial investment that would result in the NPV = 0

in order to do this we have to calculate the present value of the future cash flows:

PV = $2,600/1.06 + $2,600/1.06² + $2,600/1.06³ + $2,600/1.06⁴ + $2,600/1.06⁵ + $2,200/1.06⁶ + $2,200/1.06⁷ + $2,200/1.06⁸ + $2,200/1.06⁹ + $2,200/1.06¹⁰ = $17,877

that means that the maximum amount that can be invested = $17,877, and that way the NPV = 0

7 0
3 years ago
If the required reserve ratio
Radda [10]

Answer:

4

Explanation:

Formula:  1 / Reserve money ratio   ->    1 / 0.25 = 4

5 0
3 years ago
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