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GalinKa [24]
2 years ago
12

After a prolonged period of high inflation the government of Atlantia decides to set a target of 0% inflation going forward. As

the new assistant economic minister, you are tasked with critiquing this policy. Which criticism of the 0% inflation target is best supported by the economic literature
Business
1 answer:
s2008m [1.1K]2 years ago
6 0

The best support against a 0% inflation target given by the economic literature is c. A 0% inflation target could lead to deflation.

<h3>Why is a 0% inflation target risky?</h3>

If 0% inflation is targeted, the policy might be so effective that inflation becomes negative and deflation happens.

When deflation happens, the economy will experience hardships with lower production levels that will impact other sectors of the economy.

Options for this question include:

a. It is undisputed that too little inflation interferes with the downward adjustment of real wages.

b. Moderate to high inflation is popular among consumers.

c. A 0% inflation target could lead to deflation

Find out more on deflation at brainly.com/question/13562161.

#SPJ12

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Geraldine Parker, the owner of Gi Grs Dance Studio, Inc., started the business by investing $10,000 cash and donating a building
lesantik [10]

Answer:

The correct option is B,common stock 30,000 cash 10,000 and building 20,000

Explanation:

Geraldine Parker's contributions  to the business -that is both cash and building are seen as his capital invested in the business.Invariably, it is assumed the new business owes Geraldine Parker the worth of resources invested

Appropriate double entries for the transaction  are shown below

Dr Cash              $10000

Dr Building          $20000

Cr Capital                           $30000

This is the capital as at the start of the business,it is also possible that Geraldine Parker contributes additional capital which adds to existing capital.

Also,the profits made increases the stake of the owner in the business and drawings  should e deducted from the capital  in case the owner withdraws cash or goods from the business.

6 0
3 years ago
What system is based on the supply and demand of goods to make a profit?.
Whitepunk [10]

Answer:

B : market economy

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
Luzadis Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies m
zmey [24]

Answer:

Answer:

1. Overhead over applied= $521,000

2. Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

3. Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

4. Difference between the two CGS= $ 136,060

Explanation:

Predetermined Overhead  Costs $1,152,000

Estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours

Overhead rate= $ 1152,000/ 72,000= $ 16 per hour

Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000

Actual hours = 67,000

Overhead applied to WIP = 67,000 * 16= $ 1072,000

Overhead over applied= $ 1072,000 - $551000= $521,000

Part 2:

Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

The Cost of Goods Sold is credited and Factory overhead is debited.

Part 3:

Suppose the overhead is applied in the following ratio

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $37,520          7%   (37520/536,00*100%)

Finished Goods,              $101,840         19%      (101840/536,00*100%)

Cost of Goods Sold       $396, 640        74%     (396,640/536,00*100%)

Total                        $536,000     100%

The  overhead over applied  would be allocated in the following way applying the same ratio as determined above.

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

Part 4:

Cost of Goods Sold ( overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600

Less    Overhead   overapplied      $ 521,000

CGS = $ 951,000

Cost of Goods Sold (overhead applied to WIP & FG) $1,472,600

Less   Overapplied Overhead $ 385,540

CGS=  $ 1087,060

Difference between the two CGS = $ 1087,060- $ 951,000= $ 136,060

5 0
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kap26 [50]

Answer: True

Explanation: Hope This Helps :)

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For the composite method, the composite...(a)rate is the total cost divided by the total annual depreciation.(b)rate is the tota
kotykmax [81]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": life is the total cost divided by the total annual depreciation.

Explanation:

The composite depreciation method uses the straight-line depreciation to rate and average the loss of value in given assets. It divides the useful life figure by the total depreciable cost to arrive at the total depreciation per year. It is helpful to determine the depreciation in a complete class of assets.

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3 years ago
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