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ludmilkaskok [199]
2 years ago
14

A pan-galactic gargle (an alien) whose mass is 85 kg exploring a large asteroid. What is the force of

Physics
1 answer:
rosijanka [135]2 years ago
7 0

The acceleration due to gravity of the asteroid is 833.85 N.

<h3>Force of gravity holding the the alien down</h3>

F = mg

where;

  • m is mass of the alien
  • g is acceleration due to gravity

Assuming the acceleration due to gravity of the asteroid = 9.81 m/s²

F = 85 x 9.81

F = 833.85 N

Thus, the acceleration due to gravity of the asteroid is 833.85 N.

Learn more about force of gravity here: brainly.com/question/2537310

#SPJ1

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I need help on this question please answer within like a PLEASE QUICK HELP
Ludmilka [50]
The answer is c 5 starrrrrr
7 0
3 years ago
In what way does ocean water move globally? A. Along cold-water currents from the Poles to the equator B. From the cold Western
Anna [14]

Answer: A if it's from Ap3x

5 0
3 years ago
A spring that has a force constant of 1050 N/m is mounted vertically on the ground. A block of mass 1.95 kg is dropped from rest
aleksandrvk [35]

Answer:

25.2 cm

Explanation:

K = 1050 N/m

m = 1.95 kg

h = 1.75 m

By the conservation of energy, the potential energy of the block is converted into the potential energy stored in the spring

m g h = 1/2 x k x y^2

Where, y be the distance by which the spring is compressed.

1.95 x 9.8 x 1.75 = 1/2 x 1050 x y^2

33.44 = 525 x y^2

y = 0.252 m

y = 25.2 cm

8 0
3 years ago
If no friction acts on a diver during a dive, then which of the following statements is true? A) The total mechanical energy of
EleoNora [17]
If no frictional work is considered, then the energy of the system (the driver at all positions is conserved.

Let
position 1 = initial height of the diver (h₁), together with the initial velocity (v₁).
position 2 = final height of the diver (h₂) and the final velocity (v₂).

The initial PE = mgh₁ and the initial KE  = (1/2)mv₁²
where g = acceleration due to gravity,
m = mass of the diver.
Similarly, the final PE and KE are respectively mgh₂ and (1/2)mv₂².
PE in position 1 is converted into KE due to the loss in height from position 1 to position 2.
 
Therefore
(KE + PE) ₁ = (KE + PE)₂

Evaluate the given answers.
A) The total mechanical energy of the system increases.
     FALSE

B) Potential energy can be converted into kinetic energy but not vice versa.
     TRUE

C) (KE + PE)beginning = (KE + PE) end.
     TRUE

D) All of the above.
     FALSE

4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A charged particle moving along the +x-axis enters a uniform magnetic field pointing along the +z-axis. A uniform electric field
Brums [2.3K]

Answer:

the electric field direction should be in positive y axis

Explanation:

Lets assume that charge on particle is positive and it isequal to +q

First calculate the magnetic force on it

F_B = q V\times B =qVBsin\theta

for direction

use Right Hand Rule which will give the direction and by using his the direction will come towards negative y axis.

As given in the question that charge particle does not change their velocity so we need to apply electric field in such a way that electric force direction should be opposite to the magnectic field.

and magnitude should be same as magnectic force and also direcion of electric force depend on the direction of elecric field when charge is positive because electric force F_E = qE

Hence the electric field direction should be in positive y axis

3 0
4 years ago
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