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Makovka662 [10]
2 years ago
5

"GDP per capita" means that the GDP is calculated per

Business
1 answer:
joja [24]2 years ago
7 0

When GDP is said to be per capita, it means that GDP is being calculated <u>per person. </u>

<h3>What is GDP per capita?</h3>

This refers to the Gross Domestic Product of a nation being divided by the number of people in that nation.

This measure is used to show the productivity of the people in the nation such that a higher figure means that the citizens are more productive.

Find out more on GDP per capita at brainly.com/question/18414212.

#SPJ1

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Which budgetary category changed the most between your old budget and your new budget? Why?
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

Answer:

The net savings changed the most, and this is because of the extra money coming in via total income. An extra $290.00 was added to the category.

Explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
A company's flexible budget for the range of 35,000 units to 45,000 units of production showed variable overhead costs of $2 per
Gnom [1K]

Answer:

c. $3,200 favorable.

Explanation:

We know that

Total controllable cost variance = Budgeted overhead cost - actual overhead cost

where,

Budgeted overhead cost =  Variable overhead + Fixed overhead

where,

Variable overhead = 40,000 units × $2 = $80,000

And, the fixed overhead = $72,000

So, the budgeted overhead = $152,000

And, the actual one is $148,800

So, the total controllable cost variance would be

= $152,000 - $148,800

= $3,200 favorable

7 0
3 years ago
If you have been a victim of identity theft,what should you do after contacting the company that reported the suspicious charge
Sergeu [11.5K]
Cancel your credit cards and anything that may cause trouble like debt or charges
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The market value of​ Fords' equity, preferred​ stock, and debt are $ 7 ​billion, $ 2 ​billion, and $ 13 ​billion, respectively.
steposvetlana [31]

Answer:

WACC is 9%

Explanation:

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

According to WACC formula

WACC = ( Cost of equity x Weightage of equity ) + ( Cost of debt ( 1- t) x Weightage of debt ) + ( Cost of Preferred equity x Weightage of Preferred equity )

As per given data

Market Values

Equity = $7 ​billion,

Preferred​ stock = $2 ​billion

Debt = $13 ​billion

Cost

Equity

Capital asset pricing model measure the expected return on an asset or investment. it is considered as the cost of common stock.

Formula for CAPM

Cost of Equity = Risk free rate + beta ( market return - risk free rate )

Cost of Equity = Rf + β ( Mrp )

Cost of Equity = 3% + 1.6 ( 8% ) = 15.8%

Preferred​ stock = $2 / $26 = 0.077 = 7.7%

Debt = 8%

Placing values in the formula

WACC = ( 15.8% x $7 billion / $22 billion ) + ( 8% ( 1- 0.3) x $13 billion / $22 billion ) + ( 7.7% x $2 billion / $22 billion )

WACC = 5.03% + 3.31% + 0.7% = 9.04%

7 0
3 years ago
T/F If firms from country A undertake $20 billion of FDI in firms from country B in year 1, and another $20 billion in year 2, t
pogonyaev

Answer: False

Explanation:

In both the first and second years, firms in country A undertook FDI projects of $20 billion in country B. This means that Country A had FDI outflows of $20 billion in those two years not inflows. Inflows are what happens when the FDI is coming into the country.

Country B on the other hand, was receiving money from country A. Country B therefore had FDI inflows of $20 billion in each of the two years and not outflows like Country A had.

4 0
3 years ago
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