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Illusion [34]
3 years ago
15

The expense recognition (matching) principle, as applied to bad debts, requires: Multiple Choice That bad debts not be written o

ff. That bad debts be disclosed in the financial statements. That expenses be ignored if their effect on the financial statements is unimportant to users' business decisions. The use of the allowance method of accounting for bad debts. The use of the direct write-off method for bad debts.
Business
2 answers:
Charra [1.4K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The use of the allowance method of accounting for bad debts.

Explanation:

We use the allowance method to match the expected ad debt with the sales or account receivables which generates.

As sales of a givne month can be declared uncollectible after several month using a direct method we are putting the burden of the uncollectible in another accounting period while leaving the one which did that sale untouched.

The allowance makesthe expense in the same time period thus, it follows the recognition principle.

Leona [35]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The use of the allowance method of accounting for bad debts.

Explanation:

The matching principle is one of the cornerstones of accrual accounting, since t states that when revenue is recorded, you must recognize all related expenses with it. E.g. you cannot only record sales revenue, you must also record COGS. Regarding bad debt expense, the matching principle states that the provision for bad debts (allowance for doubtful accounts), must be recorded in the same accounting period.

So the revenues generated by credit sales have to be matched to both COGS and a provision for uncollectible accounts or bad debt. US GAAP establishes that estimates for bad debt should be recorded in the allowance for doubtful accounts, although the estimation method is not mandatory.  

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Just prior to completing the adjusted trial balance, Paula prepared the __________ section. After she finishes the adjusted tria
iVinArrow [24]

Answer:

Just prior to completing the adjusted trial balance, Paula prepared the <em><u>Adjusting entries </u></em>section. After she finishes the adjusted trial balance, she will complete the <em><u>financial statement </u></em>section of the worksheet.

Explanation:

Starting from the two first column of the unadjusted trial balance The accountant will prepare and complete the adjusting entries section. After that, the combination of the unadjusted TB and the adjusting entries will give the adjusted trial balance.  After that, the account balance is distributed according to the financial statement --> Balance sheet and income statement.

3 0
3 years ago
How does demand-pull inflation differ from cost-push inflation?
kicyunya [14]
<span>Demand-pull inflation is asserted to arise when aggregate demand in an economy outpaces aggregate supply. It involves inflation rising as real gross domestic product rises and unemployment falls, as the economy moves along the Phillips curve. This is commonly described as "too much money chasing too few goods".</span>
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The only producer of chocolate bunnies in the world, Choco's Bunny Company, recently expanded its production capacity from 1,000
Sophie [7]

Answer:

19.82%

Explanation:

Midpoint method = Q2 - Q1 / [(Q2 + Q1) / 2] / P2 - P1 / [(P2+P1) / 2]

3.33 = 2000 - 1000 / [(2000 + 1000) / 2] / P2 - P1 / [(P2+P1)/2]

3.33 = 0.66 / (P2 - P1) / [(P2+P1)/2]

By cross multiplying we have

0.66 = 3.33 [ (P2 - P1) / [(P2+P1)/2]

divide both sides by 3.33

19.82% = The mid point change in price.

5 0
3 years ago
You are valuing an investment that will pay you $28,000 per year for the first 4 years, $43,000 per year for the next 12 years,
shepuryov [24]

Answer:

The value of the investment to you today is $441,751.52.

Note: The correct answer is is $441,751.52 but this is not included in the option. Kindly confirm the correct answer again from your teacher.

Explanation:

This can be determined using the following 5 steps:

Step 1. Calculation of today's of $28,000 per year for the first 4 years

This can be calculated using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

PV28,000 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)

Where;

PV28000 = Present value or today's value of of $28,000 per year for the first 4 years = ?

P = Annual payment = $28,000

r = Annual discount return rate = 12%, or 0.12

n = number of years = 4

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV28,000 = $28,000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.12))^4) / 0.12)

PV28,000 = $85,045.78

Step 2. Calculation of today's of $43,000 per year for the next 12 years

Present value at year 4 can first be calculated using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

PV after 4 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (2)

Where;

PV at 4 = Present value at year 4 = ?

P = Annual payment = $43,000

r = Annual discount return rate = 12%, or 0.12

n = number of years = 12

Substitute the values into equation (2) to have:

PV at 4 = $43,000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.12))^12) / 0.12)

PV at 4 = $266,358.09

Therefore, we have:

PV43000 = PV at 4 / (1 + r)^n .............................. (3)

Where;

PV43000 = Present value or today's value of of $43,000 per year for the first 12 years = ?

PV at 4 = $266,358.09

r = Annual discount return rate = 12%, or 0.12

n = number of years = 4

Substitute the values into equation (3) to have:

PV43000 = $266,358.09 / (1 + 0.12)^4

PV43000 = $169,275.38

Step 3. Calculation of today's of $69,000 per year for the next 16 years

Present value at year 12 can first be calculated using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

PV after 12 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (4)

Where;

PV at 12 = Present value at year 12 = ?

P = Annual payment = $69,000

r = Annual discount return rate = 12%, or 0.12

n = number of years = 16

Substitute the values into equation (4) to have:

PV at 12 = $69,000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.12))^16) / 0.12)

PV at 12 = $481,205.04

Therefore, we have:

PV69000 = PV at 12 / (1 + r)^n .............................. (5)

Where;

PV69000 = Present value or today's value of of $69,000 per year for the first 16 years = ?

PV at 12 = $481,205.04

r = Annual discount return rate = 12%, or 0.12

n = number of years = 12

Substitute the values into equation (5) to have:

PV69000 = $481,205.04 / (1 + 0.12)^12

PV69000 = $123,513.35

Step 4. Calculation of today's of $61,000 per year for the next 13 years

Present value at year 16 can first be calculated using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

PV after 16 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (6)

Where;

PV at 16 = Present value at year 16 = ?

P = Annual payment = $61,000

r = Annual discount return rate = 12%, or 0.12

n = number of years = 13

Substitute the values into equation (6) to have:

PV at 16 = $61,000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.12))^13) / 0.12)

PV at 16 = $391,836.45

Therefore, we have:

PV61000 = PV at 16 / (1 + r)^n .............................. (7)

Where;

PV61000 = Present value or today's value of of $61,000 per year for the first 13 years = ?

PV at 16 = $391,836.45  

r = Annual discount return rate = 12%, or 0.12

n = number of years = 16

Substitute the values into equation (7) to have:

PV69000 = $391,836.45 / (1 + 0.12)^16

PV69000 = $63,917.01

Step 5. Calculation of the value of the investment to you today

This can be calculated by adding the values above:

PV = PV28,000 + PV43000 + PV69000 + PV69000 = $85,045.78 + $169,275.38 + $123,513.35 + $63,917.01 = $441,751.52

Therefore, the value of the investment to you today is $441,751.52.

4 0
3 years ago
Fabrick Company's quality cost report is to be based on the following data: Lost sales due to poor quality $ 15,200 Quality data
Yuki888 [10]

Answer:

The total appraisal cost that would appear on the quality cost report is $63,300.

Explanation:

Appraisal costs can be described as costs that are incurred by a company in order to detect some of its products that have defects before they delivered to customers.

Examples of appraisal cost include costs incurred to inspect work-in-process materials, costs incurred to inspect finished goods, supplies used to conduct inspections, and among others.

Based on the above explanation, the total appraisal cost that would appear on the quality cost report can be calculated as follows:

Total appraisal cost = Test and inspection of in-process goods + Final product testing and inspection = $19,500 + $43,800 = $63,300

Therefore, the total appraisal cost that would appear on the quality cost report is $63,300.

5 0
3 years ago
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