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1 year ago

Select the correct answer.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Tanya [424]1 year ago

8 0

Answer:

The function f has an inverse because it is one-to-one.

Step-by-step explanation:

The condition for a function to have an inverse is that every x coordinate maps to a single y - coordinate. As illustrated by the diagram attached in the second picture, every x value maps to one y value therefore satisfying the condition making the function have an inverse.

You might be interested in

If x=-7 is a root of the equation x^2+kx+49=0, then k=

aleksley [76]

Answer:

$k=14$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

$x^{2}+kx+49 = 0$

$x = -7$

Substitution can be used to find the value of $k$ :

$(-7)^{2}+(-7)k+49 = 0$

$49-7k+49 = 0$

$98 -7k = 0$

$k = 14$

Hope this helps :)

8 0

3 years ago

3² +4² = 5²,

AlekseyPX

Answer:

They are all true

Step-by-step explanation:

1. 3² +4² = 5²

3x3 + 4x4 = 5x5

9 + 16 = 25

25 = 25

-----------------------

2. 6² + 8² = 10²

36 + 64 = 100

100 = 100

------------------

3. 9² + 12² = 15²

81 + 144 = 225

225 = 225

-------------------

4. 5² +12² =13²

25 + 144 = 169

169 =169

-------------------

7 0

10 months ago

Please help its urgent

ankoles [38]

450/30

15/3x =5

x= 5

5+2y= 315

5-5+2y =315-5

2y = 310

2y/2 = 310/2

y=155

Step-by-step explanation:

450/45

2x+4y=450

2×5=10

10+(4×155)

=620/155

10/5=2

3 0

3 years ago

Please answer There is a bag filled with 3 blue and 5 red marbles. A marble is taken at random from the bag, the colour is noted

Misha Larkins [42]

Answer:

$\frac{15}{28}$ is the required probability.

Step-by-step explanation:

Total number of Marbles = Blue + Red $= 3 + 5 = 8$

Probability of getting blue $= \frac{3}{8}$

Probability of not getting a blue $=\frac{5}{8}$

To get exactly one blue in two draws, we either get a blue, not blue, or a not blue, blue.

<u>First Draw Blue, Second Draw Not Blue:</u>

1st Draw: $P(Blue) = \frac{3}{8}$

2nd Draw: $P(Not\:Blue)=\frac{5}{7}$ (since we did not replace the first marble)

To get the probability of the event, since each draw is independent, we multiply both probabilities.

$P(Event)=\frac{3}{8}\cdot \frac{5}{7}=\frac{15}{56}$

<u>First Draw Not Blue, Second Draw Not Blue:</u>

1st Draw: $P(Not\:Blue)=\frac{5}{8}$

2nd Draw: $P(Not\:Blue)=\frac{3}{7}$ (since we did not replace the first marble)

To get the probability of the event, since each draw is independent, we multiply both probabilities.

$P(Event)=\frac{5}{8}\cdot \frac{3}{7}=\frac{15}{56}$

To get the probability of exactly one blue, we add both of the events:

$\frac{15}{56}+\frac{15}{56}=\frac{15}{28}$

4 0

3 years ago

Thulani goes to the library every 7 days. He goes to the market every 4 days

emmasim [6.3K]

Thulani goes to both the library and the market for 5 more times during the year.

Step-by-step explanation:

Thulani goes to the library every 7 days. He goes to the market every 4 days.

We have to calculate the Least Common Multiple (LCM) to analyze the next common day on which he will go to both places.

The factors of 7 are: 1 x 7

The factors of 4 are: 2 x 2

Therefore, the LCM would be = 1 x 7 x 2 x 2

LCM = 28

LCM indicates that Thulani will go to both places on every 28th day.

To calculate the number of times (n) he will go to both places on same day. We can use the formula mentioned below:'

$n = \frac{Number of days}{frequency}$

Here frequency represents the LCM = 28.

The number of days are:

August: 30 (we are excluding 1st August)

September: 30

October: 31

November: 30

December: 31

Total = 152

By putting the values in formula, we get

$n = \frac{152}{28}$

n = 5.42

As, the number of times can only be a whole number. Therefore, Thulani goes to both the library and the market for 5 more times during the year.

Learn more:

The following links have more information

brainly.com/question/12419898

brainly.com/question/12764620

Keywords: LCM, same day

#learnwithBrainly

7 0

3 years ago