Select the correct answer.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Tanya [424]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

The function f has an inverse because it is one-to-one.

Step-by-step explanation:

The condition for a function to have an inverse is that every x coordinate maps to a single y - coordinate. As illustrated by the diagram attached in the second picture, every x value maps to one y value therefore satisfying the condition making the function have an inverse.

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Step-by-step explanation: