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inessss [21]
1 year ago
5

Evaluate the importance of doha development round?

Business
1 answer:
cricket20 [7]1 year ago
7 0

The Doha development round is important to reform the national trading system.

<h3>What is Doha development round?</h3>

The Doha Round of negotiations focuses on industrial and non-tariff barriers, agriculture, services, and easing trade rules.

In this case, the Doha development round is important to reform the national trading system.

It is aimed at lowering global trade barriers and is the first agreement reached through the WTO that is approved by all its members.

It introduced lower trade barriers and a revision of the trade rules.

Learn more about Doha development on:

brainly.com/question/17183363

#SPJ1

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You are evaluating two different silicon wafer milling machines. The Techron I costs $276,000, has a three-year life, and has pr
kramer

Answer:

Techron I

-$154,842

Techron II

-$144,981

Explanation:

Techron I

Cash Flow From Year 1 to Year 3

Pretax operating costs             ($75,000)

Depreciation ($276,000 / 3)   <u>($92,000)</u>

Profit before tax                       ($167,000)

Tax (21% x $167,000)                <u>$35,070</u>

Profit after tax                           ($131,930)

Add back Depreciation            <u>$92,000</u>

Cash Flow after tax                   (<u>$39,930)</u>

Terminal Value = Salvage value - Tax = $52,000 - ($52,000 x 21%) = $41,080

NPV = ($276,000) + [ (39,930) x (1+12%)^-1] + [ (39,930) x (1+12%)^-2] + [ (39,930) x (1+12%)^-3] = ($276,000) + ($35,652) + ($31,832) + ($28,421) = ($371,905)

EAC = NPV/(1-(1+r)^-n)/r

EAC = -371,905 / ( 1 - ( 1 + 12% )^-3/12% = -$154,842

Techron II

Cash Flow From Year 1 to Year 3

Pretax operating costs             ($48,000)

Depreciation ($480,000 / 5)   <u>($96,000)</u>

Profit before tax                       ($144,000)

Tax (21% x $167,000)                <u>$30,240</u>

Profit after tax                           ($113,760)

Add back Depreciation            <u>$96,000</u>

Cash Flow after tax                   (<u>$17,746)</u>

Terminal Value = Salvage value - Tax = $52,000 - ($52,000 x 21%) = $41,080

NPV = ($480,000) + [ (17,746) x (1+12%)^-1] + [ (17,746) x (1+12%)^-2] + [ (17,746) x (1+12%)^-3] = ($480,000) + ($15,845) + ($14,147) + ($12631) = ($522,623)

EAC = NPV/(1-(1+r)^-n)/r

EAC = -522,623 / ( 1 - ( 1 + 12% )^-5/12% = -$144,981

7 0
3 years ago
What piece of information is most helpful when you're comparing investments?
padilas [110]
The ROI percentages 

Hope this helps!
3 0
3 years ago
Forrester Company is considering buying new equipment that would increase monthly fixed costs from $120,000 to $150,000 and woul
Margarita [4]

Answer:

"Decrease by 250" is the appropriate response.

Explanation:

The given values are:

Revised fixed cost,

= $150,000

Current selling price,

= $100

Current variable cost,

= $60

Current contribution will be:

=  Current \ selling \ price-Current \ variable \ cost

=  100-60

=  40

Now,

The revised BEP will be:

=  \frac{Revised \ fixed \ cost}{Revised \ contribution}

On substituting the values, we get

=  \frac{150,000}{40}

=  3750 \ units

hence,

=  4000-3750

=  250

Thus the above is the correct answer.

4 0
3 years ago
The Allowance for Bad Debts account has a credit balance of $ 5 comma 000$5,000 before the adjusting entry for bad debts expense
GaryK [48]

Answer:

62,200 allowance ending

Explanation:

allownce 5,000 credit

<u>Because the bad debt is calculate over the sales,</u> the bad debt expense is the result of that estimated, without considering the beginning balance of the allowance.

22% of net credit sales will be uncollectible:

260,000 x 22% = 57,200

<u>Now ending balance will be beginning + uncollectible for the period</u>

5,000 beginning

57,200 uncollectible for the period

62,200 allowance ending

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A holder in an investment.
kumpel [21]
I think it's b honestly
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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