The answer is A! hope this helps! please brainliest!
The 2X and negative 2X cancel out. Then you add the 3 to the -9 to get -6 they you add the lonely Y to the 5Y so now you have 6Y=-6. Then you divide them both by 6 to get the Y alone. 6Y = 6
— —
6 6
So then it’s Y=1. There you go. Hope I helped!!!
Answer:
-8 and -6.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let the first even integer be <em>a</em>.
Since the second is a consecutive even integer, it is given by (<em>a</em> + 2).
Half of the smaller (i.e. <em>a</em>) is equal to two more than the larger (i.e. <em>a </em>+ 2). In other words:
![\displaystyle \frac{a}{2} = (a + 2) + 2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdisplaystyle%20%5Cfrac%7Ba%7D%7B2%7D%20%3D%20%20%28a%20%2B%202%29%20%2B%202)
Solve for <em>a: </em>
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In conclusion, the two even, consecutive integers are -8 and -6.
You multiply the 3 by -6 then multiply the 3 by 6 , one you get -18 and the other you 18x you change the -18 into a positive then add it by 18 in get 36 then you divide by 18x in get 2
Answer:
x=18
Step-by-step explanation: