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Sveta_85 [38]
2 years ago
10

Preventive stress management has three parts: primary, secondary, and tertiary. What part would you be acting on if you gave one

of your employees permission to set his or her own goals and develop a schedule to accomplish them?
Business
1 answer:
Nikitich [7]2 years ago
7 0

When a manager gives one of his employees, a permission to set his or her own goals and develop a schedule to accomplish the goals, the manager is said to act secondary preventive stress management.

<h3>What is preventive stress management?</h3>

Preventive stress management is regarded as a function of management wherein an organization prepares strategies before the happening of an event that are in contingency, is known as preventive stress management.

In the given example, the manager is acting as a part of primary stress management, as he has given his employees the authority to establish goals and work on them as per their own will.

Hence, the significance of preventive stress management is aforementioned.

Learn more about preventive stress management here:

brainly.com/question/13137015

#SPJ1

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Many depressants, including alcohol, reduce your __________.
sergey [27]
I think the answer is a. I'm not 100 sure though.
7 0
4 years ago
Which of the following is defined as an unplanned event that results in damage to property? Hazard, injury, accident, violation
Zina [86]

Answer:

violation/accident.

Explanation:

Its violation because its a violation to the property, but you also can use accident because it mean a situation not done on purpose or  something unexpected which will cause damage or injury.

4 0
3 years ago
A customer sells short 100 shares of ABC at $35 and buys 1 ABC Jul 35 Call @ $3. The stock falls to $30 and the customer closes
LUCKY_DIMON [66]

Answer:

The answer is $300 gain.

Explanation:

Operations:

  • Short 100 shares of ABC at $35 each= 100 * 35 = + $3,500
  • Buy 1 ABC Jul 35 Call @ $3 (one call equals to 100 shares)= 100 * (3) = $(300), accumulated = + 3,500 - 300 = + 3,200
  • Closes the option contract at $1 = 100 * 1 = + $100, accumulated = + 3,200 + 100 = + 3,300
  • Buys the stock at the current market price (buys 100 stock @ $30 each)= 100 * (30) = $(3,000), accumulated = + 3,300 - 3,000 = + $300.
5 0
3 years ago
10) A blue ocean strategy A. B) involves a preemptive strike to secure an advantageous position in a fast-growing market segment
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

The correct answer is D) offers growth in revenues and profits by discovering or inventing a new industry or distinct market segment that renders rivals largely irrelevant and allows a company to create and capture altogether new demand.

Explanation:

The blue ocean strategy is a marketing theory that determines the need for organizations to forget about competition and focus especially on creating their own growth possibilities, which allows perceiving other variables that are of greater importance for business and that generally remain hidden due to the price war in which the market has been involved.

4 0
4 years ago
Dora earns 50,000 a year at her johs. when she was given a raise of 5,000 her spending increased from 50,000 to 54,000 calvulate
weqwewe [10]
Given:
ΔY = $5,000, the change in income
ΔS = 50,000 - 54,000 = - 4,000, the change in savings.

By definition,
MPS (Marginal Propensity to Spend) is
MPS = ΔS/ΔY = -4000/5000 = -0.8

The relation between MPS and MPC (Marginal Propensity to Consume) is
MPS + MPC = 1.
Therefore
MPC - 0.8 = 1
MPC = 1.8

Answer:
MPS = 0.8
MPC = 1.8


5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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