Answer:
Break-even point in units= 1,860
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Selling price= $250 per uni
Fixed costs= 109,900 + 290,000= $399,900
Unitary variable cost= 29 + 6= $35
<u>To calculate the break-even point in units, we need to use the following formula:</u>
Break-even point in units= fixed costs/ contribution margin per unit
Break-even point in units= 399,900 / (250 - 35)
Break-even point in units= 1,860
Answer:
A. 15 units
B. $130
Explanation:
In order to solve this, we need to use the profit maximization condition for monopoly.
MR = MC will give us the optimal quantity and price for the monopolist.
The consumer's demand for the product is:
Qd = 80 - 0.5P
Therefore, we have:
P = (80 / 0.5) - (Qd / 0.5)
P = 160 - 2Qd
Recall that, Total Revenue:
TR = P * Q
So, in this case TR = 160Q - 2Q^2
MR = d(TR) / dQ = 160 - 4Q
Now, MR = MC
160 - 4Q = 100
4Q = 160 - 100
4Q = 60
Q = 60 / 4
Q = 15 units.
Now, P =160 - 2Q
P = 160 - 2(15)
P = 160 - 30 = 130
The optimal number of units to be placed in a package will therefore be 15 units while the firm should charge $130 for this package.
Answer:
40%
Explanation:
For computing the manufacturing cycle efficiency, first we have to compute the throughput time which is shown below:
Throughput time = Process time + Inspection time + Move time + Queue time
= 6 + 0.6 + 0.4 + 8
= 15
Now
Manufacturing cycle efficiency (MCE) is
= Value added time (process time) ÷ Throughput time
= 6 ÷ 15
= 40%
We simply applied the above formulas so that the manufacturing cycle efficiency (MCE) could come
Answer:
Asset-backed securities, also called ABS, are pools of loans that are packaged and sold to investors as securities
Explanation:
there you go
Answer: An investment that matures in five years
Explanation:
Both investments may be of equal risks, but by virtue of having different maturity dates, they will not be priced the same.
This is because the discount rate (opportunity cost) will discount the maturity value more the longer the investment is such that the present value is lower.
4 year investment
= 1,000 / (1.068)^4
= $768.63
5 year investment
= 1,000 / (1.068)^5
= $719.69
The 5 year investment will have a lower present value and will be charged lower.
