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charle [14.2K]
1 year ago
9

The Nutty Professor sells cashews for $7.40 per pound and Brazil nuts for $4.80 per pound. How much of each type should be used

to make a 28 pound mixture that sells for $6.19 per pound?
Mathematics
1 answer:
rjkz [21]1 year ago
8 0

Answer:

cos4B =1-8sin^2(B)+8sin^4(B)

Step-by-step explanation:

cos4B =1-8sin^2(B)+8sin^4(B)

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Assuming that A and B represent any two​ sets, identify the statement as either always true or not always true.
Fudgin [204]

Step-by-step explanation:

True...it was Answer but not in always

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Juan is going to flip a coin 2 times. What is the fractional probability that it will be two heads
sertanlavr [38]

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The fractional probability of getting 2 heads is 1/4.

4 0
3 years ago
A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2\%2%2, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector rando
kipiarov [429]

The data in the question seems a bit erroneous. I am writing the correct question below:

A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2%, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector randomly selects 4 chips for an inspection. Assuming the chips are independent, what is the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective? Lets break this problem up into smaller pieces to understand the strategy behind solving it.

Answer:

The probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective is 0.0776.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question states that the probability of defective chips is 2% i.e. 0.02. Let p denote the probability of selecting a defective chip so, p = 0.02

An inspector selects 4 chips, which means n=4 and we need to compute the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective. Let X be the number of defective chips selected. We need to compute P(X≥1) which means either 1, 2, 3 or 4 chips can be defective.

We will use the binomial distribution formula to solve this problem. The formula is:

<u>P(X=x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ</u>

where n = total no. of trials

          p = probability of success

          x = no. of successful trials

          q = probability of failure = 1-p

we have n=4, p=0.02 and q=1-0.02=0.98.

We need to compute P(X≥1) which is equal to:

P(X≥1) = P(X=1) + P(X=2) + P(X=3) + P(X=4)

A shorter method to do this is to use the total probability theorem:

P(X≥1) = 1 - P(X<1)

          = 1 - P(X=0)

          = 1 - ⁴C₀ (0.02)⁰(0.98)⁴⁻⁰

          = 1 - (0.98)⁴

          = 1 - 0.9224

P(X≥1) = 0.0776

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3 years ago
A local florist buys a dozen roses for x dollars. He plans to sell the roses at a 40 % mark-up. What expression shows the sellin
Ira Lisetskai [31]

Answer:

1.40x I think :)

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2 years ago
At the same rate, how many miles did she bike in the next 15 minutes?
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