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Sindrei [870]
2 years ago
11

Venn diagram ( attached image )

Mathematics
1 answer:
alexandr402 [8]2 years ago
7 0

Assessing the given Venn diagram and the data related to it, we can answer the required question:

Q1. How many people were surveyed = 86.

Q2. What is the probability that a customer chosen at random:

a) takes salt P(S) = 46/85.

b) takes both salt and vinegar P(S ∩ V) = 13/85.

c) takes salt or vinegar or both P(S ∪ V) = 66/85.

The number of people who take salt chips n(S) = 46.

The number of people who take vinegar chips n(V) = 33.

The number of people who takes both n(S ∩ V) = 13.

The number of people who take neither n((S ∪ V)') = 19.

Therefore, the total number of people surveyed n(U) = n(S) + n(V) - n(S ∩ V) + n((S ∪ V)') = 46 + 33 - 13 + 19 = 85.

The number of people who takes salt or vinegar or both n(S ∪ V) = n(U) - n((S ∪ V)') = 85 - 19 = 66.

The probability that a customer chosen at random takes salt P(S) = n(S)/n(U) = 46/85.

The probability that a customer chosen at random takes both salt and vinegar P(S ∩ V) = n(S ∩ V)/n(U) = 13/85.

The probability that a customer chosen at random takes salt or vinegar or both P(S ∪ V) = n(S ∪ V)/n(U) = 66/85.

Learn more about Venn Diagrams at

brainly.com/question/24713052

#SPJ10

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76,500,000 in scientific notation
Mamont248 [21]
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Help plzzz thank you !
VashaNatasha [74]

Answer:

a. Ameribank-$15,157.50

b. Capital Two-$4,646.25

Step-by-step explanation:

a. Tad's savings is $15,000, we calculate his total amount at the end of the year for each bank:

#Ameribank

A=P+I=P+PRT\\\\=15000+15000\times 0.0105\times 1\\\\=\$15,157.50

#Huffington( we use the effective rate to calculate the compound amount):

i_m=(1+i/m)^m-1\\\\=(1+0.0095/12)^[12}-1=0.009541\\\\A=P(1+i_m)^n\\\\=15000(1.009541)^1\\\\=\$15,143.12

#Sixth-Third, Take 1 yrs=52 weeks:

i_m=(1+i/m)^m-1\\\\=(1+0.01/52)^{52}-1=0.01005\\\\A=15000(1.01005)^1\\\\=\$15,150.74

#Hence, Ameribank is the best option as his money grows to $15,157.50 which is greater than all the remaining two options.

b. We use the compound interest formula A=P(1+r/n)^{nt} to determine which bank gives the best option:

#Capital Two. r=3.75%, n=12,t=4

A=P(1+r/n)^{nt}\\\\=4000(1+0.0375/12)^{12\times4}\\\\=\$4,646.25

#J.C Morgan, t=2, r=3.55% n=12

A=P(1+r/n)^{nt}\\\\=4000(1+0.0355/12)^{12\times 2}\\\\=\$4,293.87

#Silverman Slacks, n=12,t=3, r=3.65%

A=P(1+r/n)^{nt}\\\\=4000(1+0.0365/12)^{12\times3}\\\\=\$4,462.14

We compare the investment amounts after t years:

Capital>Silver>Morgan=4646.25>4462.14>4293.87

Hence, Capital two is the best option with an investment amount of $4,646.25

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AlekseyPX

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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