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1 year ago

5. Successive US administrations have accused the Chinese government of manipulating their currency (Yuan) to

1 answer:

5 0

A weaker Yuan against the US dollar makes Chinese exports cheaper, increases demand, and makes US exports to China more expensive, thereby reducing the demand for US exports.

<h3>What is international trade?</h3>

International trade is the global exchange of goods and services among countries of the world, involving the use of the foreign exchange.

The three types of international trade are:

Export Trade
Import Trade
Entrepot Trade.

Thus, by manipulating the Yuan, the Chinese government ensures that it has a more competitive advantage over the United States in international trade.

Learn more about Chinese Yuan Manipulation at brainly.com/question/27858412

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A department adds raw materials to a Process at the beginning of the process and incurs conversion costs uniformly throughout th

Natasha_Volkova [10]

Answer: c. 78,000 equivalent units.

Explanation:

Equivalent units for conversion is calculated as:

= Units completed and transferred out + Equivalent ending work in process

Units completed and transferred out:

= Units started into production - Ending units

= 90,000 - 20,000

= 70,000 units

Equivalent ending work in process = 40% * 20,000 work in process units

= 8,000 units

Equivalent units for conversion = 70,000 + 8,000

= 78,000 units

7 0

3 years ago

In a jewelry store, a customer places an order for a piece of jewelry (for example, a silver pin in the shape of a tulip). each

Marizza181 [45]

The best type of system for the order of the jewelry would be:

<span>1. </span>A customer chooses what he wants from the jewelry

<span>2. </span>He/she must check if the special jewels that he/she wanted are available for pre-order

<span>3. </span>Once the business agreement is done a transaction shall be followed in the making.

<span>Special orders should always be made to be pre-ordered, if the supplier has the item.</span>

6 0

2 years ago

Ace Bonding Company purchased merchandise inventory on account. The inventory costs $3,700 and is expected to sell for $6,400. H

snow_lady [41]

Answer:

Ace records the purchase:

Inventory 3,700 Accounts payable 3,700

Explanation:

Ace Bonding Company purchased merchandise inventory on account. The inventory costs $3,700.

Following the Accrual accounting - an accounting method that revenue or expenses are recorded when a transaction occurs rather than when payment is received or made. At that time of purchasing, the company has not sold the merchandise yet. The entry records the purchase:

Debit Inventory $3,700

Credit Accounts payable $3,700

7 0

3 years ago

Company X currently has a capital structure that consists of 40% equity, 20% preferred equity, and 40% of debt. The risk-free ra

Sindrei [870]

Answer:

14.58%

Explanation:

WACC = weight of equity x cost of equity + weight of debt x cost of debt x (1 - tax rate) + weight of preferred equity x dividend yield

According to the capital asset price model: Expected rate of return = risk free + beta x (market rate of return - risk free rate of return)

r= 3% + 1.1 x 8 = 11.8

equity = 0.4 x 11.8% = 4.72

d = 0.4 x 5 x (1 -0.21) = 1.58

p = 0.2 x 6 = 1.2

11.8 + 1.58 + 1.2 =

8 0

2 years ago

Kiddy Toy Corporation needs to acquire the use of a machine to be used in its manufacturing process. The machine needed is manuf

Firdavs [7]

Answer:

The machine should be leased because it is cheaper when compared to buying the machine.

Explanation:

To determine which option kiddy should choose , we are to calculate the net present value of buying the machine and the present value of payments thay kiddy would make if they lease the equipment.

Net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.

NPV can be calculated using a financial calculator:

Cash flow in year 0 = $-161,000

Cash flow each year from year 1 to 11 = $-6,000

Cash flow in year 12 = $-6,000 + $11,000 = $5,000

I = 11%

NPV = $-196,809.89

Present value of lease payment

Cash flow each year from year 1 to 11 = $-26,000

I = 11%

PV = $-161,369.40

The machine should be leased because it is cheaper when compared to buying the machine.

To find the NPV using a financial calacutor:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

3. Press compute

Present value can be calculated using the same steps as above

I hope my answer helps you

8 0

3 years ago