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baherus [9]
2 years ago
11

The director of a health clinic has a quarterly budget of $600,000. She

Mathematics
1 answer:
nalin [4]2 years ago
8 0

The meaning of this problem is that with 7 nurses they can only hire D=13.25

<h3>What is the meaning of this problem.?</h3>

Generally, the equation for the model is  mathematically given as

P=1000D^{0.6}N^{0.3}

Therefore,

dv/dD=0.6*1000*D^{0.4}N)^{0.3}

dv/dD=600* \frac{N6.1}{D6.1}=0

Also

dv/dN=300* \frac{N6.8}{N6.7}=0

Equations 1 and 2

300* \frac{D6.8}{N6.7}=600* \frac{N6.1}{D6.1}

.sub D=(60N)/4

300* \frac{((60N)/4)6.8}{N6.7}=600* \frac{N6.1}{((60N)/4)6.1}

N=6.67

N=7

solve for D

D=(60(7))/4

D=13.25

In conclusion, with 7 nurses they can only hire D=13.25

Read more about  LaGrange multiplier

brainly.com/question/4609414

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5 0
3 years ago
Evaluate the expression. Use y = -6.<br> y? – 4y + 8
Umnica [9.8K]

Answer:

-6-4(-6)+8

-6+24+8

-6+32

26

8 0
3 years ago
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A company that manufactures hair ribbons knows that the number of ribbons it can sell each week, x, is related to the price p pe
mel-nik [20]

Given:

The number of ribbons it can sell each week, x, is related to the price p per ribbon by the equation:

x=1000-100p

To find:

The selling price if the company wants the weekly revenue to be $1,600.

Solution:

We know that the revenue is the product of quantity and price.

R=xp

R=(1000-100p)p

R=1000p-100p^2

We need to find the value of p when the value of R is $1600.

1600=1000p-100p^2

1600-1000p+100p^2=0

100(16-10p+p^2)=0

Divide both sides by 100.

p^2-10p+16=0

Splitting the middle term, we get

p^2-8p-2p+16=0

p(p-8)-2(p-8)=0

(p-8)(p-2)=0

Using zero product property, we get

p-8=0 or p-2=0

p=8 or p=2

Therefore, the smaller value of p is $2 and the larger value of p is $8.

5 0
3 years ago
Some help would be great, also giving brainliest.
Harrizon [31]
The area of the shaded region would be 64m²
8 0
3 years ago
The following exchange rate is given: £1 = 1.12 euros. Convert £9 into euros.
raketka [301]

Answer:

10.08 Euro's

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that we know,

£1 = 1.12 Euro's.

To Simply convert it to Euro's you would multiply, 1.12 x 9 in order to find out what £9 is worth in Euro's.

Thus giving you,

10.08 Euro's

5 0
3 years ago
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