Two triangles are said to be <u>congruent</u> if they have <em>similar</em> properties. Thus the required <u>options</u> to complete the <em>paragraph proof</em> are:
a. angle 1 is <u>congruent</u> to angle 2.
b. <em>alternate</em> angles are <u>congruent</u> if two parallel lines are cut by a <em>transversal</em>.
c. =
The <em>similarity property</em> of two or more shapes implies that the <u>shapes</u> are congruent. Thus they have the <em>same</em> properties.
From the given <u>diagram</u> in the question, it can be deduced that
ΔABC ≅ ΔABE (<em>substitution</em> property of equality)
Given that EA is <u>parallel</u> to BD, then:
i. <2 ≅ <3 (<em>corresponding</em> angle property)
ii. <1 ≅ < 4 (<em>alternate</em> angle property)
Thus, the required options to complete the <em>paragraph proof</em> are:
For more clarifications on the properties of congruent triangles, visit: brainly.com/question/1619927
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The expression in company B represents that is is in arithmetic progression where first term is 42000 and common difference is 1800 . So we have to use the formula of sum of n terms which is
Where a is the first term, n is the nth term, d is the common difference
On substituting there values,we will get
= 15(84000+52200) = 15*136200 =2043000
And for company A, it is
Difference between them =2043000-2002500= 40500
So the correct option is the second option .
Answer:
See the proof below.
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."
Solution to the problem
For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables with the following distribution:
bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:
From the info given we know that
We need to proof that by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:
The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:
And for the variance of Z we can do this:
And if we take common factor we got:
And as we can see then we can conclude that