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Mariulka [41]
2 years ago
12

The sole purpose of an operating model is to define how all the businesses technology will be implemented

Business
1 answer:
Olenka [21]2 years ago
5 0

The sole purpose of an operating model is to define how all the businesses technology will be implemented is a False statement.

<h3>What is operating model?</h3>

The plan for how value will be produced and provided to target customers is known as an operating model. An operating model puts the business model into action and carries it out.

The purpose of operating model are-

  • Strategic intent is converted into operational capability by an operating model.
  • It acts as the cornerstone for execution and offers the enterprise leadership team, line managers, and operational teams a clear direction.
  • While not the strategy itself, an operating model aids in its development and reinforcement.
  • An operational model is a diagram that shows how a business operates.
  • It covers everything, from the company's product sourcing practices to the organization of its functional regions and departments.
  • Your strategy can be carried out according to an operating model.
  • Many people mistake operating models with business models.

To know more about business model, here

brainly.com/question/24448358

#SPJ4

The complete question is -

The sole purpose of an architecture operating model is to define how all the businesses technology will be implemented. (True/False)

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Answer:

False advertising and deceptive business practices. Consumer fraud issues. Predatory lending and financial scams. Issues regarding product safety and defects.

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3 years ago
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Cotton On Ltd. currently has the following capital structure: Debt: $3,500,000 par value of outstanding bond that pays annually
jeka57 [31]

Answer and Explanation:

This question is incomplete. Kindly find the incomplete question here

Ordinary shares: $5,500,000 book value of outstanding ordinary shares. Nominal value of each share is $100. The firm plan just paid a $8.50 dividend per share. The firm is maintaining 4% annual growth rate in dividends, which is expected to continue indefinitely.

Preferred shares: 45,000 outstanding preferred shares with face value of $100, paying fixed dividend rate of 12%

The firm's marginal tax rate is 30%.

Required:

a) Calculate the current price of the corporate bond?

b)Calculate the current price of the ordinary share if the average return of the shares in the same industry is 9%?

c) Calculate the current price of the preferred share if the average return of the shares in the same industry is 10%

The computation is shown below:

a. For the current price of the corporate bond

Before that first we have to determine the after tax yield to maturity i.e

After tax YTM = Before tax YTM × (1 - tax rate)

= 12% × ( 1 - 30%)

= 12% × (1 - 0.3)

= 12% × (0.7)

= 8.4%

Now

Price of bond = Interest × PVIFA(YTM%,n) + Redemption value × PVIF(YTM%,n)

Interest = 1000 × 10% = $100

YTM% = 8.4%

n = 20

PVIFA(YTM%,n) = [1 - (1 ÷ (1 + r)^n ÷ r ]

PVIFA(8.4%,20) = [1 - (1 ÷ (1 + 8.4%)^20 ÷ 8.4%]

= [1 - (1 ÷ (1 + 0.084)^20 ÷ 0.084]

= [1-(1 ÷ (1.084)^20 ÷ 0.084]

= [1 - 0.1993 ÷  0.084]

= 0.8007 ÷ 0.084

= 9.5327

PVIF(8.4%,20) = 1 ÷ (1 + 8.4%)^20

= 1 ÷ (1.084)^20

= 0.19926

So, the price of bond is

= $100 × 9.5327 + $1000 × 0.19926

= $953.27 + $199.26

= $1,152.52  

b)Price of stock = Dividend of next year ÷ (Required rate of return - growth rate )

where,

Growth rate = 4%

Required rate of return = 9%

The Dividend of next year = Dividend paid  × (1 +  growth rate)

= 8.50 × (1 + 4%)

= 8.50 × (1 + 0.04)

= 8.50 × (1.04)

= $8.84

Thus the price of the stock is

= $8.84 ÷ (9% - 4%)

= $8.84 ÷ 5%

= $176.80  

c) Price of preference shares is

= Dividend ÷ Required rate of return

where,

Dividend = 100 × 12% = $12

And, the Required rate of return = 10%

So, the price of preference shares is

= 12 ÷ 10%

= $120

6 0
4 years ago
When considering third-party service providers to host sensitive data, you should conduct a vendor risk review. What actions doe
Wewaii [24]

The actions do this include:

A)Test the vendor's hardware or software.

B)Ask the vendor to fill out a security questionnaire.

Vendor chance management (VRM), or 0.33-birthday celebration danger management, is the management, tracking, and evaluation of dangers that end result from 0.33-celebration carriers and providers of products and services.

An excessive-danger supplier is a 3rd-celebration vendor that has to get the right of entry to a agency's sensitive corporate information and/or handles its financial transactions and has a high risk of information loss. A high-threat seller is also a supplier that an organisation relies upon directly to run its operations.

A seller chance control application reduces the frequency and severity of statistics breaches, records leaks, and cyber attacks regarding 1/3 and fourth-parties, defensive touchy information, PII, PHI, and highbrow property and ensures business continuity.

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2 years ago
Explain one difference between international and home trade
scZoUnD [109]

Answer:

Mobility of Labor and Capital: "One very important difference between home trade and international trade is that labor and capital are not so mobile between different countries as they are in their own countries."

Explanation:

hope this helps c:

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why are you so weaird

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