Answer:
OAKLEY
INVENTORY TURNOVER 2,66
Cost Of Goods 395,010
Average Inventory 148,500
DAYS IN INVENTORY 137
Explanation:
To calculate the Inventory Turnover ratio it's necessary to calculate the average inventory of the year , the take the Total Cost of Goods and divide it by the Average Inventory, the result it's the Inventory Turnover of the company, in this case 2,66
To find the days in inventory we have to divide 365 (days of the year) and divide it by the Inventory Turnover, 2,66, the result is 137 days.
END START
$172,000 $125,000 Inventory
$ 768,000 Sales Revenue
$ 395,010 Cost of Goods Sold
OAKLEY
INVENTORY TURNOVER 2,66
Cost Of Goods 395,010
Average Inventory 148,500
DAYS IN INVENTORY 137
Answer:
sharing information across the organization.
Explanation:
ERP software systems allow employees accurate and timely access to real time information about the company's areas that they work with. This can optimize how the company operates and increase cooperation between different areas. Also unnecessary operations and delays are eliminated.
Before, salespeople had to continuously check with inventory department about what products were available and ready to be sold, which caused delays and time is money.
Answer:
I suggest you delay your choice until you learn more of Zenith's current management
Explanation:
The management is just a position that doesn't carry the same character. Every manager carries different values and principles and one person might be satisfactory to you while another might not be. The new management may have some characters which might be off-putting to you and might ruin the company's conference. Best to go with what you know than what you don't.
Answer:
Could you be more clear!?
Explanation:
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Activity method based on output = (output produced that year / total output of the machine) x (Cost of asset - Salvage value)
year 2 = (48,000 / 200,000) x (36,000 - 2000) = 8160
book value = cost of asset - accumulated depreciation
accumulated depreciation = year 1 + year 2's depreciation
year 1 = (45,000 / 200,000) x (36,000 - 2000) =
- 200,000 - (7650 + 8160) =
