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tester [92]
2 years ago
9

A bilateral contract is one in which one side promises to perform in exchange for the other side's actions

Business
1 answer:
ss7ja [257]2 years ago
8 0

The statement is false.

Void and voidable contracts are one and the same. Exculpatory clauses are typically considered void towards public coverage. Covenants not to compete are commonly taken into consideration void as against public coverage.

A bilateral contract is a contract in which each party alternate guarantees to carry out. One birthday party's promise serves as consideration for the promise of the other. As a result, each party is an obligor of that birthday celebration's own promise and an obligee of the opposite's promise.

A contract wherein the events trade a promise for a promise is referred to as a Bilateral contract, whereas a contract wherein one birthday party gives a promise and the other birthday celebration performs an act is known as a Unilateral settlement. these legally enforceable promises can be in writing or oral.

Learn more about the bilateral contract here brainly.com/question/13741271

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Accounts Receivable has a balance of $ 4 comma 000$4,000​, and the Allowance for Bad Debts has a credit balance of $ 450$450. Th
Darya [45]

Answer:

What is the net realizable value of Accounts Receivable after a $ 140$140 account receivable is written​ off? is $3550

Explanation:

Account receivable 4000      

Allowance bad debts 450      

       

       

Net realizable =(400-140)-(450-140)

       

                 =3860-310

                          =3550    

5 0
4 years ago
Which of the following accounts will give you the LEAST access to your money?
AnnyKZ [126]
I would need to see the following accounts inorder to fully help.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Over the last six years, prices and investing activity in the bond market rose for two years and then fell consistently for the
bezimeni [28]

Answer:

Secular bear market

Explanation:

A secular bear market is a long term trend that lasts between 5 to 25 years which consists of a smaller bull market and a larger bear market. It means that a small period of increase in prices is followed by a prolonged period of a decrease in price.

A secular bear occurred between January 1980 to June 1999 in the gold market.  During this time, the price of gold fell   $850/oz  to  $253/oz

A secular bull market is a long term trend that lasts between 5 to 25 years which consists of a small period of decline in prices is followed by a prolonged period of a rise in price.

8 0
3 years ago
Expalin how foreign employment contributes to spurring nation economy​
erica [24]

1) Country can get lots of foreign currency as the remittance which can be used to establish industries in the country. Such industries provide job opportunities in the country. 2) People who go overseas to work can learn different skills and technologies which can be beneficial for the development of our own country.

5 0
3 years ago
The following information is from the 20X1 annual report of Weber Corporation, a company that supplies manufactured parts to the
DENIUS [597]

Answer:

ROA for 20X1= 10%

Profit margin for 20X1= 5%

Assets turnover= 2

ROA for the coming year= 11.25%

Explanation:

Weber corporation return on assets for 20X1 can be calculated as follows

ROA= Net income/Average total assets × 100

= 2,450,000/24,500,000 × 100

= 0.1 × 100

= 10%

The profit margin can be calculated as follows

= Net income/sales × 100

= 2,450,000/49,000,000 × 100

= 0.05 × 100

= 5%

The assets turnover ratio can be calculated as follows

= Sales/Average Total assets

= 49,000,000/24,500,000

= 2

The company ROA if when the turnover rate for next year is2.25 and the profit margin remain unchanged can be calculated as follows

= profit margin × assets turnover ratio

= 5% × 2.25

= 11.25%

8 0
3 years ago
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