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ivann1987 [24]
3 years ago
9

On July 8, Action Co. issued a $70,000, 6%, 120-day note payable to Scanlon Co. Assuming a 360-day year, what information is nee

ded to calculate the maturity value of the note?
Business
1 answer:
vlabodo [156]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: c. The face value ($70,000), interest rate (6%), and term (120 days) are needed to calculate the maturity value of the note.

Explanation:

The Maturity Value of the note payable will be the Total Amount at the end of 120 days. This amount would be the face value of the Note plus the interest that would have accrued over these 120 days.

Maturity Value = Face Value + ( Face Value * interest rate * term)

= 70,000 + ( 70,000 * 0.06 * 120/360)

= 70,000 + 1,400

= $71,400

Option C is correct.

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Jamison Company developed the following reconciling information in preparing its June bank reconciliation: Cash balance per bank
Alex787 [66]

Answer:

c. $15,065

Explanation:

In bank reconciliation the book balance is adjusted using some adjustments made by the the bank and still pending by the business. We make an adjusted balance of cash book balance and bank statement balance to reconcile the amounts.

Cash balance per book 6/30    $13,000

+ Note receivable                      $4,000

- Bank charges                          $35

- NSF check                               <u>$1,900  </u>

Adjusted Cash book balance   <u>$15,065</u>

Note receivable is received in the bank but not been recorded by the business. It will be added to the balance because it will increase the balance.

Bank charges are deducted by the bank but not been recorded by the business it will be deducted.

NSF check have already added by the balance but its not been cleared. So it needs to be deducted form the Book balance.

3 0
3 years ago
During the preparation of the bank reconciliation for Building Concepts Co., Joel Kimmel, the assistant controller, discovered t
Andrews [41]

Answer:

Joel is behaving in a totally unprofessional & unethical manner

Explanation:

As assistant controller, Joel Kimmel's job specification & responsibility includes financial statement preparation & combination, putting of internal controls in place, detailed analysis & reporting of cost variance, acts as the go-between with external auditors amongst other such responsibilities.

As such, when Joel discovered the cost discrepancy during the reconciliation, it was actually his responsibility to call the bank's attention to the variance. This is something that clearly falls under his job specification & can be considered as neglect of duty. Joel's decision defeats the very purpose of bank reconciliation, which is to correct any such discrepancy & to the ensure the rectification of transactions. Most importantly, the decision Joel plans to take is very unethical & is against standard accounting practices

We can therefore, say that Joel's decision is thoroughly unethical & unprofessional

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A change in depreciation method is treated as a change in estimate that is achieved by a change in accounting principle, and is
viktelen [127]

A change in depreciation method is treated as a change in estimate that is achieved by a change in accounting principle, and is accounted for prospectively in the current and future periods.

The rules and regulations that businesses and other organizations must abide by when reporting financial data are known as accounting principles. These regulations standardize the terminology and procedures that accountants must employ, making it simpler to analyze financial data.

A unified set of accounting guidelines, methods, and standards known as generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP) were released by the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB).

The consistency that accounting principles establish enables more accurate and effective viewing of financial statements and reporting for businesses.

Learn more about accounting principles here

brainly.com/question/5399294

#SPJ4

3 0
2 years ago
If an investor's holding period is longer than the term to maturity of a bond, he or she is exposed to___________ A) interest-ra
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:              

option B

Explanation:

Reinvestment risk refers to the possibility that potential cash flow will have to be invested in low-yielding assets, like coupons (the annual interest charges on the bond) or the eventual returns of the investment.

Reinvestment risk refers to one of financial risk's primary styles. The term is used to describe the threat of anyone canceling or stopping a particular investment, which one might need to find another place to reinvest the cash with the risk of not getting an equally attractive prospect.

Thus, from the above we can conclude that correct option is B .            

7 0
2 years ago
Which factor makes a currency more attractive to investors
Anna007 [38]
The correct answer is B. A low inflation rate! I hope this helps you!
3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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