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Viefleur [7K]
2 years ago
5

Olympia ate lunch at a restaurant the amount of her check was $6.89 she left eight dollars on the table which included the amoun

t she owed plus a tip for the waiter which equation shows t and the amount of her tip in dollars
Mathematics
1 answer:
maxonik [38]2 years ago
3 0

The equation will be like this,

6.89 + t = 8.00

t = 8 - 6.89

t = 1.11

tips = $1.11

6.89 + t = 8.00

To sum up the total amount of cash and coins you have, first, sort each invoice and coin by denomination. Create a separate stack for each denomination and count how many denominations or coins you have.

For each denomination of banknotes and coins, multiply the number you have by the denomination. For example, if you have 4 out of $ 10, multiply by 4x10 to get $ 40. If you have three $ 5 bills, multiply by 3x5 to get $ 15.

Sum the totals to calculate the total amount.

Learn more about Ammount Calculation  here: brainly.com/question/2005046

#SPJ4

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Murrr4er [49]

Answer:

It's C

Step-by-step explanation:

It's C because when you find the least common denominator of 3 and 5 it's 15. So then you convert the fractions to get 6/15+5/15=11/15, which leaves 4/15 left.

4 0
2 years ago
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Simplify the following<br>(4x + 3) (5x + 2) ​
lidiya [134]

Answer:

20x^2+23x+6

Step-by-step explanation:

(4x+3)(5x+2)

(4x)(5x)+2(4x)+(5x)3+3(2)

20x^2+8x+15x+6

20x^2+23x+6

Hope that helps :)

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2 years ago
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Find the Maclaurin series for f(x) using the definition of a Maclaurin series. [Assume that f has a power series expansion. Do n
aliya0001 [1]

Answer:

f(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^{(n-1)}2^{n}\dfrac{x^n}{n}

Step-by-step explanation:

The Maclaurin series of a function f(x) is the Taylor series of the function of the series around zero which is given by

f(x)=f(0)+f^{\prime}(0)x+f^{\prime \prime}(0)\dfrac{x^2}{2!}+ ...+f^{(n)}(0)\dfrac{x^n}{n!}+...

We first compute the n-th derivative of f(x)=\ln(1+2x), note that

f^{\prime}(x)= 2 \cdot (1+2x)^{-1}\\f^{\prime \prime}(x)= 2^2\cdot (-1) \cdot (1+2x)^{-2}\\f^{\prime \prime}(x)= 2^3\cdot (-1)^2\cdot 2 \cdot (1+2x)^{-3}\\...\\\\f^{n}(x)= 2^n\cdot (-1)^{(n-1)}\cdot (n-1)! \cdot (1+2x)^{-n}\\

Now, if we compute the n-th derivative at 0 we get

f(0)=\ln(1+2\cdot 0)=\ln(1)=0\\\\f^{\prime}(0)=2 \cdot 1 =2\\\\f^{(2)}(0)=2^{2}\cdot(-1)\\\\f^{(3)}(0)=2^{3}\cdot (-1)^2\cdot 2\\\\...\\\\f^{(n)}(0)=2^n\cdot(-1)^{(n-1)}\cdot (n-1)!

and so the Maclaurin series for f(x)=ln(1+2x) is given by

f(x)=0+2x-2^2\dfrac{x^2}{2!}+2^3\cdot 2! \dfrac{x^3}{3!}+...+(-1)^{(n-1)}(n-1)!\cdot 2^n\dfrac{x^n}{n!}+...\\\\= 0 + 2x -2^2  \dfrac{x^2}{2!}+2^3\dfrac{x^3}{3!}+...+(-1)^{(n-1)}2^{n}\dfrac{x^n}{n}+...\\\\=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^{(n-1)}2^n\dfrac{x^n}{n}

3 0
3 years ago
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Ksju [112]

Answer:

79

Step-by-step explanation:

The difference between 79 and 22 is 57. 79 is THE number. All you have to do is add 22 and 57 because the answer you get would ALWAYS have one of the numbers added as the difference.

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Ann [662]
Divide 294 by 14 and you get 21. I hope it helps and that’s the answer. :)
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3 years ago
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