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Gala2k [10]
2 years ago
6

It is efficient to continue an activity as long as the marginal benefit exceeds the marginal cost.

Business
2 answers:
alina1380 [7]2 years ago
8 0

Answer: True

Explanation:

lord [1]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The answer is true.

^The person above my answer is correct.

You might be interested in
What is the hedonic theory of wage differentials? Discuss the characteristics of a normal-profit isoprofit curve. Combine isopro
Hatshy [7]

Answer:

hedonic Theory of Wages:  

Accept just two kinds of occupations in the work showcase (safe employments versus unsafe occupations). Under this, sheltered employments have likelihood of zero that specialist gets harmed. Unsafe occupations have likelihood of 1 and laborers know this. Laborers care about whether their occupations are sheltered or hazardous.  

Laborers expand utility by picking wage-chance blends that offer them the best measure of utility. Expect laborers disdain hazard, yet to various degrees, for example they have diverse ideal pay chance blends. Firms are on their isoprofit bends that give the hazard wage mixes that give zero (financial) benefit. They vary between firms. An indulgent pay work mirror the connection among wages and occupation qualities. It matches laborers with various hazard inclinations with firms that can give employments that coordinate these diverse hazard inclinations.  

Apathy bends uncover the exchange offs that a laborer favors among wages and level of hazard (chance thought to be an 'awful'). To give a similar utility, dangerous occupations must compensation higher wages than safe employments. The more prominent the laborer's aversion for hazard, the more prominent the pay off required for changing from a safe to an unsafe activity, and the more noteworthy the booking cost. As the pay firms bring to the table for hazardous occupations increments, less firms will extend to dangerous employment opportunities and bringing about a descending slanting interest bend as it turns out to be increasingly productive for firms to make occupations spare than to pay the higher compensation.  

Suppositions of Differential Wage Theory are:  

  1. The compensation differential is sure. Hazardous employments pay more than spare occupations.  
  2. The balance wage differential is that of the last laborer employed (the peripheral specialist). It's anything but a proportion of the normal abhorrence for chance among laborers in the work showcase.  
  3. Along these lines, everything except the minimal specialist are overcompensated by the market.  

On the off chance that a few specialists like to work in dangerous occupations (they are eager to pay for the option to be harmed) and if the interest for such laborers is little, the market repaying differential is negative. At point P, where supply rises to request, laborers utilized in unsafe occupations acquire not as much as laborers utilized in safe employments. The outline given beneath shows the circumstance:  

Isoprofit Curve:  

As it is exorbitant to create well-being, a firm contribution hazard level P* can make the working environment more secure for example move left on flat pivot, just on the off chance that it diminishes compensation while keeping benefits consistent, so that the iso-benefit bend is upward slanting. Higher isoprofit bend returns lower benefit.

6 0
3 years ago
In its first year of business, Borden Corporation had sales of $2,040,000 and cost of goods sold of $1,220,000. Borden expects r
nordsb [41]

The entries are as follows

<u>To record estimated returns on Sales</u>

Debit: Sales Refund Payable Account $142,800

Credit: Accounts Receivables $142,800

<u>To record estimated Cost of Sales returns</u>

Debit: Inventory Returns Estimated Account $85,400

Credit: Inventory on Sales on Returns $85,400

<u>Explanation:</u>

<u>To derive the figure for Sales Refund payable for the year</u>

7% of $2,040,000

=7/100*2040000= $142,800

<u>To derive the figure for Inventory cost on Sales Refund payable for the year </u>

7% of $1,220,000

=7/100*1220000

= $85400

6 0
4 years ago
The minimum wage is an example of a Group of answer choices price ceiling. price door. price wall. price floor.
topjm [15]

Answer:

price floor

Explanation:

A price ceiling is a limit that is established by the government that determines the highest price that can be charged for a product or service.

A price floor is a control that is established by the government that determines the lowest price for a product or service.

According to this, the answer is that the minimum wage is an example of a price floor because it determines the minimum amount that a company can pay to a worker.

The other options are not right because a price ceiling establishes the highest price for a product and price door and price wall are not price controls.

8 0
3 years ago
Profit-Volume Chart
Vaselesa [24]

Answer:

Explanation:

Answer a.

Maximum Operating Loss will occur when sale is $0.

If Sale is $0, then Variable Cost will also be $0 and Fixed Cost will be $600,000

Operating Profit = Sales – Variable Expenses – Fixed Cost

Operating Profit = - 600,000

Operating Profit = $ - 600,000

Answer b.

Maximum Operating Loss will occur when sale is $2,500,000.

Units Sold = 20,000 ($2,500,000 / 125)

If Sale is $2,500,000, then Variable Cost will also be $1,500,000 ($75×20,000) and Fixed Cost will be $600,000

Operating Profit = Sales – Variable Expenses – Fixed Cost

Operating Profit = 2,500,000 – 1,500,000 - 600,000

Operating Profit = $ 400,000

Answer c.

4,800 Units :

Operating profit = $125×4,800 - $75×4,800 – 600,000

Operating profit = $ - 360,000

8,000 units :

Operating profit = $125×8,000 - $75×8,000 – 600,000

Operating profit = $ - 200,000

12,000 Units :

Operating profit = $125×12,000 - $75×12,000 – 600,000

Operating profit = $ 0

16,000 Units :

Operating profit = $125×16,000 - $75×16,000 – 600,000

Operating profit = $ 200,000

20,000 Units :

Operating profit = $125×20,000 - $75×20,000 – 600,000

Operating profit = $ 400,000

4,800 Units                   Operating Loss Area

8,000 Units                   Operating Loss Area

12,000 Units                   Break-even Point

16,000 Units                   Operating Profit Area

20,000 Units                   Operating Profit Area

Answer d.

Break-even Sales = 12,000 Units as there is neither operating profit nor loss.

8 0
3 years ago
Free 27 points, come on up, and see if u can earn them- i act weird
timofeeve [1]

Answer:

haha i am wierd too i feel u

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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