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Lisa [10]
1 year ago
8

Sinking fund bonds: Multiple Choice Require equal payments of both principal and interest over the life of the bond issue. Requi

re the issuer to set aside assets to pay bonds at maturity. Are bearer bonds.
Business
1 answer:
alexandr1967 [171]1 year ago
8 0

Require the issuer to set aside assets to pay bonds at maturity.

Bonds that require the issuer to set aside a pool of assets used only to repay the bonds at maturity.

<h3>What is Sinking Fund Bond ?</h3>

A sinking fund is maintained by companies for bond issues, and is money set aside or saved to pay off a debt or bond.

  • Bonds issued with sinking funds are lower risk since they are backed by the collateral in the fund, and therefore carry lower yields.

  • example may be a company issuing $1 million of bonds that are to mature in 10 years. Given this, it creates a sinking fund and deposits $100,000 yearly to make sure that the bonds are all bought back by their maturity date

Learn more about Sinking Fund Bond here:

brainly.com/question/26678695

#SPJ4

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Which of the following is NOT an assumption that economists make when developing a production possibilities frontier (PPF)?
marta [7]

Answer:

Option D

Explanation:

Because it is not one of the key assumption underlying ppf

4 0
3 years ago
You must estimate the intrinsic value of Lowell Technologies’ stock. The end-of-year free cash flow (FCF1) is expected to be $30
Hunter-Best [27]

Answer:

Firm's estimated intrinsic value per share of common stock = $40.00

Explanation:

Intrinsic value:

Intrinsic value is a way of describing the perceived or true value of an asset.

Formula:

Intrinsic value = free cash flow / required rate - growth rate

As the end-of-year free cash flow (FCF1) = $30  and it is expected to grow at a constant rate of 5.0% a year thereafter.

so FCF2 = 30 (1 + 5%)

FCF2 = 31.5

Value at year 1 = FCF2 / required rate - growth rate

Therefore by putting the values in the above formula, we get

Value at year 1 = 31.5 / 0.08 - 0.05

Value at year 1 = 31.5 / 0.03

Value at year 1 = 1,050

As the company’s WACC is 8.0%, so

Value today = 30 / (1 + 0.08)1 + 1,050 / (1 + 0.08)1

Value today = $1,000 million

As stated in the question it has $200 million of long-term debt, and there are 20.0 million shares of common stock outstanding.

Intrinsic value = (1,000 - 200) / 20

Intrinsic value = $40.00

8 0
3 years ago
You notice a european call and a european put on a stock have the same strike price and time to maturity on an options exchange.
Ghella [55]

Answer: b. The put price decreases to $3.50

Explanation:

Put - Call Parity refers to the relationship that a certain European Put has with a European Call of the same underlying asset, strike price, and expiration date.

If Put - Call Clarity holds then the options and the calls should move together when Volatility changes all else being equal.

In the above scenario, the price of the call DROPPED by $0.5 to $2.50.

This means that the Put Price must DROP AS WELL by $0.5 to $3.50 to maintain the Parity.

8 0
3 years ago
What is the effect of an accrued expense (such as salaries expense) adjustment on the income statement and the balance sheet?
CaHeK987 [17]

Answer: A. Expenses are increased

B. Net income is reduced

E. A liability (such as salaries payable) will be increased.

Explanation:

An accrued expense is an expense that is witten when it was incurred even before it's eventually paid. e.g wages payable.

The effect of an accrued expense such as salaries expense adjustment on the income statement and the balance sheet is that there'll ba na increase in expense. Also, there'll be an increase in liability such as the salaries payable. Since there is an increase in liability, thus will bring about a reduction in the net income.

7 0
2 years ago
Richard, age 50, is employed as an actuary. For calendar year 2019, he had AGI of $130,000 and paid the following medical expens
Black_prince [1.1K]

Answer:

c. $10,340

Explanation:

For year 2018, the deduction for medical expense is amount of qualified medical expense that exceeds 7.5% of AGI.

Expenditure Richard can deduct as medical expense = $5300 + $7900 + $5100 + $830 + $960 - 7.5% * $130000

= $10,340

As such option c is correct and other options a, b, d and e are incorrect.

5 0
2 years ago
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