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3 years ago

Matt co. is the lessor in connection with an operating lease. matt co. would record:

1 answer:

6 0

Matt co. is the lessor in connection with an operating lease. matt co. would record a depreciation expense. The lessor records it as a depceciation expense becuase they are using a stright-line lease as a source of revenue. As the operation lease declines, it will keep showing as a depreciation on their balance sheets.

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FabFitFun Coupon Code FabFitFun Coupon Code is the best way to avail discounts on FabFitFun store shopping, there are lots of it

dezoksy [38]

Answer: Please don’t advertise here

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3 years ago

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Mr. Ballard retired in 2018 at age 69 and made his first withdrawal of $35,000 from his traditional IRA. At year-end, the IRA ba

serg [7]

Answer:

Contributions amounting to $320,000 were non deductible.

First year of withdrawal:

Taxfree withdrawal % = Uncovered Investments / Current year value x 100

Taxfree withdrawal % = [$320,000 / ($441,000 + $35,000)] x 100

Taxfree withdrawal % = [$320 / $476,000] x 100

Taxfree withdrawal % = 67.23%

Amount of taxfree withdrawal = 67.23% x $35,000

Amount of taxfree withdrawal = $23,530.5

Taxable amount = Total Withdrawal - Tax free withdrawal

Taxable amount = $35,000 - $23,530.5

Taxable amount = $11,469.5

Second year of withdrawal:

Taxfree withdrawal % = [($320,000 - $23,530.5) / ($407,000 + $60,000)] x 100

Taxfree withdrawal % = [$296, 469.5 / $467,000] x 100

Taxfree withdrawal % = 63.48%

Amount of taxfree withdrawal = 63.48% x $60,000

Amount of taxfree withdrawal = $38,088

Taxable amount = $60,000 - $38,088

Taxable amount = $21,912

$35,000 would be included in taxable income in first year and $60,000 would be included in taxable income in second year.

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3 years ago

Stech Co. is issuing $9 million 12% bonds in a private placement on July 1, 2017. Each $1,000 bond pays interest semi-annually o

STALIN [3.7K]

Answer:

Expected selling price =$ 1,271.81

Explanation:

The price of a bond is the present value (PV) of the future cash inflows expected from the bond discounted using the yield to maturity.

These cash flows include interest payment and redemption value

The price of the bond can be calculated as follows:

Step 1

PV of interest payment

coupon rate - 12%, yield - 8%, years to maturity- 10 years

Semi-annual coupon rate = 12%/2 = 6%

Semi-annual Interest payment =( 6%×$1000)= $60

Semi annual yield = 8%/2 = 4%

PV of interest payment

= A ×(1- (1+r)^(-n))/r

A- interest payment, r- yield - 4%, n- no of periods- 2 × 10 = 20periods

= 60× (1-(1.04)^(-10×2))/0.04)

= 60× 13.59032634

=$815.41

Step 2

PV of redemption value (RV)

PV = RV × (1+r)^(-n)

RV - redemption value- $1000, n- 2×10 r- 4%

= 1,000 × (1+0.04)^(-2×10)

= $456.38

Step 3

Price of bond = PV of interest payment + PV of RV

= $815.41 + $456.38

= $ 1,271.81

Expected selling price =$ 1,271.81

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3 years ago

Why are many entrepreneurs uncomfortable on a relaxing vacation? A. They don't get along well with others. B. They have a sense

horsena [70]

The answer is c......

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3 years ago

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The direct write-off method of accounting for bad debts uses an allowance account. uses a contra asset account. is the preferred

jeyben [28]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": does not require estimates of bad debt losses.

Explanation:

There are mainly two approaches while recognizing bad debts (unpaid debts): the allowance method and the direct write-off method. Using the allowance method the unpaid account receivable goes through a series of stages until it is recognized as a bad debt. There are no set criteria to do so. When the firm eventually recognizes and calculates the amount of a bad expense, it is recorded in an allowance account. The negative balance diminishes the company's revenue.

The direct write-off method does not generate any allowance account. The account receivable is simply written-off after the company determines the debt as uncollectible. Thus, there is no need to estimate bad debt losses using this approach.

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3 years ago