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weqwewe [10]
2 years ago
12

Suppose it costs $43 to roll a pair of dice. you get paid $6 times the sum of the numbers that appear on the dice. is it a fair

game?
Mathematics
1 answer:
lutik1710 [3]2 years ago
7 0

The game is not fair as 6 times the expected sum is less than the cost, $43.

In the question, we are asked if the game is fair.

For the game to be fair, 6 times the expected sum for the pair from the game has to be greater than or equal to $43, that is,

6E(X) ≥ 43.

The expected sum for the pair, E(X) can be calculated using the formula,

E(X) = ∑x.p(x),

or, E(X) = 1/18 + 1/6 + 1/3 + 5/9 + 1/6 + 7/9 + 10/9 + 1 + 5/6 + 11/18 + 1/3,

or, E(X) = 107/18.

Now, 6E(X) = 6*(107/18) = 107/3 = 35.67.

Since, the total return from the game is $35.67, which is less than the cost of $43, the game is not fair.

Learn more about expected return from a game at

brainly.com/question/24855677

#SPJ4

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Match the following items.
Pani-rosa [81]

This problem can be solved using probability, the equation of the probability of an event A is P(A)= favorable outcomes/possible outcomes. The interception of two probable events is P(A∩B)= P(A)P(B).

There are 12 black marbels, 10 red marbles, and 18 white marbels, all the same size. If two marbles are drawn from the jar without being replaced.

The total of the marbles is 40.

If two marbles are drawn from the jar without being replaced, what would the probability be:

1. of drawing two black marbles?

The probability of drawing one black marble is (12/40). Then, the probability of drawing another black marble after that is (11/39) due we drawing one marble before.

P(Black∩Black) = (12/40)(11/39) = 132/1560, simplifying the fraction:

P(Black∩Black) = 11/130

2. of drawing a white, then a black marble?

The probability of drawing one white marble is (18/40). Then, the probability of drawing then a black marble after that is (12/39) due we drawed one marble before.

P(White∩Black) = (18/40)(12/39) = 216/1560, simplifying the fraction:

P(White∩Black) = 9/65

3. of drawing two white marbles?

The probability of drawing one white marble is (18/40). Then, the probability of drawing another white marble after that is (17/39) due we drawed one marble before.

P(White∩White) = (18/40)(17/39) = 306/1560, simplifying the fraction:

P(White∩White) = 51/260

4. of drawing a black marble, then a red marble?

The probability of drawing one black marble is (12/40). Then, the probability of drawing then a red marble after that is (10/39) due we drawed one marble before.

P(Black∩Red) = (12/40)(10/39) = 120/1560, simplifying the fraction:

P(Black∩Red) = 1/13

4 0
3 years ago
The sector of a circle with a 16-centimeter radius has a central angle measure of 45°.
Tresset [83]
A = (45/360)×16^2×pi
A = 32pi
8 0
3 years ago
I need to know what is 190% of 40?
MrRissso [65]
40/x=100/190 40/x=100/190
(40/x)*x=(100/190)*x
40=0.526315789474*x
(0.56315789474) to get x
40/0.536315789474=x
76=x
x=76 now we have 190% of 76


5 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELPPP<br> ONG ILL GIVE YOU ALL MYPOINTS JUST HELP
vampirchik [111]
The answer is 13 hope I helped
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Hii please help i’ll give brainliest
Alinara [238K]

Answer:

X>3

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
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