Answer:
American chocolate
Explanation:
In the field of psychology, a 'stereotype' is defined as a general belief about a certain type or category of people.
The consumers around the world have some different stereotypes about some specific countries and some specific products that they judged to be the 'best'. Such an item which does not fit best in the stereotype scheme is 'American chocolate.'
The American chocolate have a different taste than others. It is tangy and is slightly sour. It is lighter. So some people have a different perception or stereotype for this item.
Thus the answer is 'American chocolate.'
Answer:
$90,000
Explanation:
The non controlling interest is the amount of ownership position in a subsidiary which is not owned by the parent. In the given scenario Lyle's had an inventory of 40% goods in transit. The Roberts reported a profit of $300,000. The non controlling percentage in Lyle's is 30%. The net income that will be reported to Lyle's will be 30% of $300,000 less any profit on goods in transit.
Answer:
Auditing:conduct an official financial inspection of (a company or its accounts).
taxation : Taxation is the means by which a government or the taxing authority imposes or levies a tax on its citizens and business entities. From income tax to goods and services tax (GST), taxation applies to all levels.
environmental accounting : Environmental accounting is a field that identifies resource use, measures and communicates costs of a company's or national economic impact on the environment.
forensic accounting: Forensic accounting is a combination of accounting and investigative techniques used to discover financial crimes. One of the key functions of forensic accounting is to explain the nature of a financial crime to the courts.
hope it helps
Answer:
<em>Miller-bond</em>:
today: $ 1,167.68
after 1-year: $ 1,157.74
after 3 year: $ 1,136.03
after 7-year: $ 1,084.25
after 11-year: $ 1,018.87
at maturity: $ 1,000.00
<em>Modigliani-bond:</em>
today: $ 847.53
after 1-year: $ 855.49
after 3 year: $ 873.41
after 7-year: $ 918.89
after 11-year: $ 981.14
at maturity: $ 1,000.00
Explanation:
We need to solve for the present value of the coupon payment and maturity of each bonds:
<em><u>Miller:</u></em>
C 80.000
time 12
rate 0.06
PV $670.7075
Maturity 1,000.00
time 12.00
rate 0.06
PV 496.97
PV c $670.7075
PV m $496.9694
Total $1,167.6769
<em>In few years ahead we can capitalize the bod and subtract the coupon payment</em>
<u>after a year:</u>
1.167.669 x (1.06) - 80 = $1,157.7375
<u>after three-year:</u>
1,157.74 x 1.06^2 - 80*1.06 - 80 = 1136.033855
If we are far away then, it is better to re do the main formula
<u>after 7-years:</u>
C 80.000
time 5
rate 0.06
PV $336.9891
Maturity 1,000.00
time 5.00
rate 0.06
PV $747.26
PV c $336.9891
PV m $747.2582
Total $1,084.2473
<u />
<u>1 year before maturity:</u>
last coupon payment + maturity
1,080 /1.06 = 1.018,8679 = 1,018.87
For the Modigliani bond, we repeat the same procedure.
PV
C 30.000
time 24
rate 0.04
PV $457.4089
Maturity 1,000.00
time 24.00
rate 0.04
PV 390.12
PV c $457.4089
PV m $390.1215
Total $847.5304
And we repeat the procedure for other years
Answer:
MIRR -16.50%
They should reject the project is it destroys capital it do not meet to pay up the cost of the investment.
A typical firm’s IRR will be greater than its MIR
If the project yields higher than the cost of capital the IRR will be higher than the MIRR as reinvest the cashflow at the project yield rather than copany's cost of capital, thus it overstate the return.
Explanation:
WACC (cost of capital, reinvestment and financiation rate) = 7%
<em>Cash inflow:</em>
Year 1 275000 336,886.825
Year 3 450000 481500
Year 4 450000 450000
Total 1,268,386.825
<em>Cash outflow:</em>
F= -2,500,000
Year 2 -125000 - 109, 179.841
Total 2,609,179.841
Now we can solve for MIRR:
MIRR - 16.49991% = -16.50%