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tresset_1 [31]
3 years ago
5

A 74-year-old male who recently underwent lumbar laminectomy for spinal stenosis complains of pain in his right great toe. He is

unable to ambulate due to the pain. His other chronic medical problems include hypertension and stage 4 chronic kidney disease. On examination he has erythema, edema, warmth, and tenderness over the right first metatarsal joint.
Which one of the following is the best initial treatment for his condition?
A - Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
B - Colchicine (Colcrys)
C - Indomethacin
D - Prednisone
E - Probenecid
Biology
1 answer:
Oxana [17]3 years ago
4 0
<h2>The Answer is (D) Option</h2>

Explanation:

  • Prednisone is the best initial treatment for his condition.
  • Prednisone is a Corticosteroid which is a Steroid hormone.
  • Prednisone helps in preventing the inflammation which is due to the substance released in the body.
  • Prednisone helps in suppressing the immune system of the body.
  • Prednisone can be used as immunosuppressant or an anti inflammatory medication.
  • Prednisone is used to treat breathing disroders, arthritis, lupus, psoriasis and allergic disorders.

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77julia77 [94]

Answer:

The inactivation of one protein that slow down the cell cycle could lead to cancer. (option b).

Explanation:

The cell cycle is the process a cell undergoes when it divides during its life. This process includes a control mechanism to prevent normal cells from replicating more than normal, called cell cycle regulation.

In oncogenesis - the formation of malignant tumours - many factors induce the abnormal growth of a tissue by the abnormal multiplication of the cells that form it, leading to cancer. One of these factors may be a mutation in the DNA that prevents the production of regulatory proteins.

The mutation that produces exaggerated cell growth -and which can eventually lead to cancer- can create defects in a specific regulatory protein that slow down the cell cycle, so that exaggerated and uncontrolled cell replication occurs.

Once a tumor tissue has formed, successive mutations will lead to a lack of cell differentiation, the property of forming blood vessels, the ability to invade tissue and lose its apoptosis mechanism, that characterizes cancer cells.

Learn more:

Cyclines in cell cycle regulation brainly.com/question/6821354

3 0
3 years ago
What is a dorsal notochord?
dimaraw [331]

Answer:

a long rodlike structure that develops dorsal to the gut and ventral to the neural tube. The notochord is composed primarily of a core of glycoproteins that are encased in a sheath of collagen fibers wound into two opposing helices. 

5 0
2 years ago
Please help i don't get it
pantera1 [17]

Answer:

♡Technically, You need an example of each definition.♡

-- Here is the answers.

Explanation:

✧・゚: *✧・゚:* ✧・゚: *✧・゚:* ✧・゚: *✧・゚:* ✧・゚: *✧・゚:* ✧・゚: *✧・゚:* ✧・゚: *✧・゚:*

1. One cell for a Phagocyte is called amoeba.

2. A cell that produces antibodies is called B lymphocytes.

3. A cell which produces histamine in an allgeric response is called antigens.

4. A cell that allows the secondary response to be faster than the primary immune response is called Antigen‐specific T cells.

5. A cell which differentiates to form a plasma cell is called B cells.

6. A cell that destrosy cells which are infected with a pathogen (in cell mediated response is called cytotoxic, helper, and suppressor T cells.

Hope I could help you, sorry I am late! :(

Have a great day! (´。• ᵕ •。`)

✧・゚: *✧・゚:* ✧・゚: *✧・゚:* ✧・゚: *✧・゚:* ✧・゚: *✧・゚:* ✧・゚: *✧・゚:* ✧・゚: *✧・゚:* ✧・゚:

4 0
2 years ago
Select all the correct answers.
babymother [125]

Answer:

The answer is A.

Explanation:

Adaptive immunity recognizes antigens of viruses.

8 0
3 years ago
The ___ ___ is responsible for maintaining homeostasis within any cell.
dmitriy555 [2]
Cell membrane is responsible 
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3 years ago
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